Act passed under the British Crown is part of Indian Polity and Governance. Below are notes on 9 sub-topics, followed by practice MCQs from State PSC and UPSC papers.

All-India Federation Scheme

  • Proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • Envisaged an 'All-India Federation' as its federal system.
  • Comprised British Indian Provinces and Princely States as constituent units.
  • Accession of Princely States was voluntary for the federation to be formed.
  • Never came into being as the Princely States did not join.

Bicameralism at the Central Legislature

Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu1. Chelmsford Reforms):

    • Introduced bicameralism at the Central Legislature for the first time.
    • Central Legislature comprised two houses:
      • Legislative Assembly (Lower House): Directly elected.
      • Council of State (Upper House): Indirectly elected. Government of India Act, 1935: 2.
    • Proposed an All-India Federation with a bicameral Federal Legislature:
      • Federal Assembly (Lower House).
      • Council of State (Upper House).
    • The proposed All-India Federation and its federal legislature never materialized as princely states did not accede.
    • Introduced bicameral legislatures in six out of eleven provinces (Provincial Autonomy):
      • Bicameral Provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar, Bombay, Madras, United Provinces.
      • Unicameral Provinces: Central Provinces, NWFP, Orissa, Punjab, Sindh.

Government of India Act 1858

  • Abolished the East India Company's rule and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues to the British Crown.
  • Ended the system of 'double government' by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
  • Created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration.
  • The Secretary of State was a member of the British Cabinet and was solely responsible to the British Parliament.
  • Established a 15-member Council of India to assist the Secretary of State.
  • Renamed the Governor-General of India as the Viceroy of India, who became the direct representative of the British Crown in India.
  • Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India.

Government of India Act 1919

  • Also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
  • Introduced bicameralism at the Central Legislature, consisting of the Indian Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.
  • Introduced Dyarchy (dual-rule) at the Provincial level:
    • Transferred subjects (e.g., education, health) administered by Governor with ministers responsible to the legislative council.
    • Reserved subjects (e.g., finance, law & order) administered by Governor and his Executive Council, not responsible to the legislative council.
  • Separated Provincial and Central budgets.
  • Established the post of Indian High Commissioner in London.
  • Provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission (Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 based on the Lee Commission's recommendations).
  • Extended communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
  • Granted limited franchise (voting rights) based on property, tax, or education.
  • Provided for a statutory commission to be appointed after 10 years to inquire into and report on its working (e.g., Simon Commission, 1927).

Government of India Act 1935

  • Provided for the establishment of an AllIndia Federation comprising British Indian Provinces and Princely States (never came into force as Princely States did not join).
  • Abolished Dyarchy in the provinces (introduced by the 1919 Act) and introduced 'Provincial Autonomy' in its place.
  • Introduced Dyarchy at the Centre, dividing federal subjects into Reserved and Transferred.
  • Vested Residuary powers in the GovernorGeneral of India.
  • Divided legislative powers between the Centre and provinces into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List.
  • Introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces (Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam, and the United Provinces).
  • Extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labour (workers).
  • Provided for the establishment of a Federal Court (established in 1937).
  • Provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India (established in 1935).
  • Provided for the establishment of Federal Public Service Commission, Provincial Public Service Commissions, and Joint Public Service Commissions.
  • Separated Burma from India.
  • Created two new provinces: Sindh (from Bombay) and Orissa (from Bihar and Orissa).
  • Bihar became a separate province from the former province of Bihar and Orissa.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru described the Act as a "new charter of bondage" or a "slave constitution."
  • It contained 321 sections and 10 schedules.
  • Passed in 1935, but came into effect in 1937.

Indian Councils Act 1861

  • Enlarged the Governor-General's Council for legislative purposes.
  • Provided for addition of a minimum of 6 and a maximum of 12 additional members to the Legislative Council for legislative work.
  • Governor-General was empowered to nominate these additional members, of whom at least half were to be non-officials.
  • Initiated the process of legislative devolution by restoring legislative powers to the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.
  • Introduced the portfolio system, empowering individual members of the Viceroy's Executive Council to head specific departments.
  • Did not increase the total members of the Executive Council to 7; it increased the number of ordinary members to five.

Indian Councils Act 1909

  • Also known as Morley-Minto Reforms.
  • Significantly increased the size of legislative councils, both Central and Provincial.
  • Maintained an official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed non-official majorities in Provincial Legislative Councils.
  • Introduced separate electorates for Muslims, allowing them to elect their own representatives. This legitimized communalism.
  • Provided for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
  • Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council as the law member.
  • Increased the deliberative functions of the legislative councils, allowing members to discuss the budget, move resolutions, and ask supplementary questions.

Indian High Courts Act 1861

  • Passed by the British Parliament in 1861.
  • Abolished the Supreme Courts (at Calcutta, Madras, Bombay) and the Sadar Adalats (principal courts of appeal for civil and criminal cases in the Mofussil areas).
  • Established High Courts in their place in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1862.
  • Empowered the Crown to establish High Courts in other territories as well (e.g., Allahabad High Court in 1866).
  • Each High Court comprised a Chief Justice and not more than 15 other judges, appointed by the Crown.
  • Defined qualifications for High Court judges, including Barristers, Advocates, Civil Servants with judicial experience, and judges of the Sadar Courts.
  • Granted High Courts both original and appellate jurisdiction.
  • Conferred High Courts with the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts within their territorial limits.

4. Constituent Assembly and Making of the Constitution

Indian Independence Act 1947

  • Indian Independence Act 1947 received Royal Assent on 18th July 1947.

Practice MCQs: Act passed under the British Crown

All-India Federation Scheme

  1. The Federal System proposed under the Government of India Act 1935 was

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2021

    1. All India Federation
    2. Federation of India
    3. United India
    4. Indian Confederation
    Show answer

    Answer: A. All India Federation

    This proposed federation was intended to bring together the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States under a single federal structure.

Bicameralism at the Central Legislature

  1. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, each of the following Provincial Legislatures consisted of two chambers, except

    Asked in: B. 2 only · PPSC CS Prelims 2015

    1. Assam
    2. Bihar
    3. Madras
    4. Punjab
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Punjab

    C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: A RO ARO -2020 The Regulating Act of 1773 established the Supreme Court at Calcutta. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice. - Government of India Act, 1935, introduced bicameralism in some provinces. - Provinces with bicameral legislatures were Assam, Bengal, Bihar, Bombay, Madras, United Provinces. - The question lists Assam, Bihar, Madras, and Punjab. - Among the listed provinces, Punjab had a unicameral legislature.

Government of India Act 1858

  1. Which sentence of the following sentences is correct with reference to the provisions of the Government of India Act (1858)?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2018

    1. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Dir‐ ector.
    2. It also catered to the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal.
    3. Both A and B
    4. None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: A. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Dir‐ ector.

    - The Government of India Act 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857. It transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown. - Statement A: The Act abolished the system of double government introduced by Pitt's India Act 1784. The Board of Control (which supervised political affairs) and the Court of Directors (which managed commercial affairs) were abolished. All powers were transferred to the Secretary of State for India, who was advised by a Council of India. This statement is correct. - Statement B: The establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal was a provision of the Indian Councils Act 1861, not the Government of India Act 1858. The 1861 Act introduced representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process and provided for the establishment of legislative councils in the provinces. This statement is incorrect.

Government of India Act 1919

  1. The post of the Indian High Commission was created by which Act?

    Asked in: BPSC Prelims Exam 63rd

    1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909
    2. The Government of India Act, 1919
    3. The Government of India Act, 1935
    4. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Government of India Act, 1919

    - The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced several administrative changes as part of the reforms aimed at increasing Indian participation in the administration. - Section 29 of the Act provided for the appointment of a High Commissioner for India in the United Kingdom. - This office was intended to take over some of the agency functions previously performed by the Secretary of State for India in Council, such as looking after the material interests of Indians studying in the UK and managing Indian government supplies purchased in Britain.

  2. Which of the following Act introduced bi- Cameral Legislature at the central level in India ?

    Asked in: OPSC CS Prelims 2017

    1. Indian Council Act, 1909
    2. The Government of India Act, 1919
    3. The Government of India Act, 1935
    4. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Government of India Act, 1919

    Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the central legislature consisted of two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Lower House) and the Council of State (Upper House).

  3. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms led to the enactment of which one among the following landmark Acts?

    Asked in: UPSC CBI DSP LDCE 2023

    1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909
    2. The Government of India Act, 1919
    3. The Government of India Act, 1935
    4. The Indian Councils Act, 1892
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Government of India Act, 1919

    The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were a significant step towards responsible government in India, although limited in scope. They introduced separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo- Indians, and Europeans, extending communal representation.

  4. Which of the following can be said to be classified as partial disablement? 1. In case the disablement is temporary, it reduces the earning capacity of the employee in any employment in which he was engaged at the time of the accident 2. In case the disablement is temporary, it disables the person from performing all works that he was capable of performing at the time of the accident 3. In case the disablement is permanent, it reduces his earning capacity in every employment he is capable of undertaking at the time of the accident Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1 only
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 3

    The question requires differentiating between temporary and permanent partial disablement as defined under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.

  5. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by

    Asked in: WBPSC CS Prelims 2023

    1. The Indian Council Act, 1982
    2. The Act of 1909
    3. The Government of India Act, 1919
    4. The Government of India Act, 1935
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The Government of India Act, 1919

    The recommendations of the Lee Commission led to the establishment of the first Public Service Commission in India on 1st October 1926. This was done under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.

  6. The Indian Legislature was made bi-cameral for the first time by

    Asked in: UPPSC Upper Mains 2008

    1. Indian Council Act of 1892
    2. Indian Council Act of 1909
    3. The Government of India Act of 1919,
    4. Government of India Act of 1935.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The Government of India Act of 1919,

    The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms) introduced a bi-cameral central legislature consisting of the Central Legislative Assembly (lower house) and the Council of State (upper house). This marked a significant step towards representative institutions, although suffrage remained limited.

  7. Which act intriduced DYARCHY at the center:

    Asked in: RPSC RAS Prelims 2008

    1. Act of 1909
    2. Govt of India, ACT 1919
    3. Govt of India, ACT 1935
    4. Govt of Indai, ACT 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Govt of India, ACT 1935

    The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the system of Dyarchy (division of subjects into 'reserved' and 'transferred') at the Central level. It abolished Dyarchy at the Provincial level, granting provincial autonomy.

Government of India Act 1935

  1. By which Act, Bihar became a separate province?

    Asked in: BPSC Prelims Exam 63rd

    1. The Government of India Act of 1935
    2. The Government of India Act of 1919
    3. The Indian Councils Act of 1909
    4. The Indian Independence Act of 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The Government of India Act of 1935

    - Before 1912, Bihar was part of the Bengal Presidency. - In 1912, Bihar and Orissa were separated from Bengal and formed a new province under a Proclamation issued under the Government of India Act, 1833. - The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for the creation of new provinces and the redrawing of provincial boundaries. - Under this Act, the provinces of Bihar and Orissa were formally separated from each other and reconstituted as distinct provinces in 1936.

  2. Which of the following Act prescribed federal features for the first time?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2023

    1. Govt. of India Act 1909
    2. Govt. of India Act 1919
    3. Govt. of India Act 1935
    4. Indian Independence Act 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Govt. of India Act 1935

    The Act proposed an All-India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states (though the federation part did not fully materialise). It introduced a division of powers between the Centre and provinces through federal, provincial, and concurrent lists, and provided for provincial autonomy.

  3. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Finance Minister is final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not. Statement II : In Indian system of 'dyarchy' was introduced by Government of India Act, 1935 during British period. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2024

    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incor‐ rect
    3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is in‐ correct
    4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incor‐ rect

    - Statement I is incorrect. According to Article 110(3) of the Indian Constitution, the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Finance Minister. - Statement II is incorrect. Dyarchy, the system of dividing executive powers into reserved and transferred subjects, was introduced at the provincial level by the Government of India Act, 1919, not the Government of India Act, 1935. The 1935 Act abolished dyarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy, while proposing dyarchy at the Centre (which did not fully materialize).

  4. Consider the following statements: a. Under the Act of 1935, the residuary powers were given to the Governor General of India. b. In United States the residuary powers are left to the States. c. In Canada the residuary powers are vested in the Provinces. Which of the above statements are correct ?

    Asked in: MPSC CS Prelims 2016

    1. a and b
    2. b and c
    3. a and c
    4. a, b and c
    Show answer

    Answer: A. a and b

    Statement a is correct. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the distribution of powers was done through three lists: Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent. Any matter not enumerated in these lists (residuary powers) was vested with the Governor-General of India. Statement b is correct. In the United States, the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution reserves powers not delegated to the federal government, nor prohibited to the states, to the States respectively, or the people. This is where residuary powers lie. Statement c is incorrect. In Canada, the residuary powers under its constitution (Constitution Act, 1867) are generally understood to be vested in the federal Parliament, which has the general power to make laws for the "Peace, Order, and good Government of Canada" on matters not exclusively assigned to the provincial legislatures.

  5. Who described the "Government of India Act, 1935" as a "new charter of bondage" ?

    Asked in: PPSC CS Prelims 2015

    1. Mahatma Gandhi
    2. Sardar Patel
    3. Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. Rajendra Prasad
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Jawaharlal Nehru

    - The Government of India Act, 1935, introduced provincial autonomy but retained significant control for the British government at the centre and through the powers of the Governor-General and Governors. - Indian leaders across the political spectrum criticized the Act for falling short of the demand for complete independence or even substantial self- rule. - Jawaharlal Nehru's quote reflected the view that the Act did not grant true freedom or sovereignty but rather perpetuated British control in a new form.

  6. One amongst the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 :

    Asked in: RPSC RAS Prelims 2016

    1. It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy.
    2. The Act provided for an All India Federation.
    3. It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre.
    4. Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures.

    The Government of India Act, 1935 was a landmark legislation that introduced several significant changes in the constitutional structure of British India. Let's examine the options: - A) It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy: This is a correct and salient feature of the Act. Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level, and provinces were granted autonomy. - B) The Act provided for an All India Federation: This is also a correct and salient feature. The Act proposed a federation comprising British Indian provinces and princely states, though it never fully materialized as the required number of princely states did not accede. - C) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre: This is a correct and salient feature. While provincial diarchy was removed, diarchy was introduced at the central level, dividing central subjects into 'reserved' and 'transferred'. - D) Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures: This is INCORRECT. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the residuary legislative powers were vested in the Governor-General, not the provincial legislatures. The powers were distributed into three lists: Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent. Matters not covered by these lists were considered residuary and assigned to the Governor-General.

  7. Which of the following is not correct? A voluntary reference of dispute to arbitration under Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 can be made

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. where the industrial dispute exists or is appre‐ hended
    2. when the employer and the workmen agree to refer the dispute to arbitration
    3. at any time before or after the dispute has been referred under Section 10
    4. to such person or persons as may be specified in the arbitration agreement
    Show answer

    Answer: C. at any time before or after the dispute has been referred under Section 10

    The question tests the understanding of the conditions and timing for voluntary reference of an industrial dispute to arbitration under Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

  8. Which one among the following statements in respect of publication and commencement of an award under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. Every arbitration award or award of the Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal shall be published by the appropriate government within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of any such award.
    2. An award is enforceable on the expiration of 30 days from the date of its publication by the appropriate government.
    3. The appropriate government can declare that such award is not enforceable even after the expiration of 30 days, in case it is of the opinion that it is inexpedient on public grounds affecting the national economy to give effect to the award.
    4. The powers vested on the appropriate govern‐ ment with regard to making an award unenforce‐ able are absolute and it is not required to refer the matter any further to any other authority.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. The powers vested on the appropriate govern‐ ment with regard to making an award unenforce‐ able are absolute and it is not required to refer the matter any further to any other authority.

    The question assesses knowledge about the process of publication and commencement of awards under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and the powers of the appropriate government concerning the enforceability of awards.

  9. Which of the following categories of persons is/are ‘workmen’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? 1. Persons employed to look after the administrative functions in an industry 2. Persons employed to do technical work in an industry 3. Persons employed as officer or employee of a prison 4. Persons employed to do operational work in an industry Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 4

    The question requires understanding the definition of 'workman' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, including the types of work included and the categories of persons excluded.

  10. Which one among the following amounts to retrenchment?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. X retires from his services on reaching the age of superannuation
    2. X is terminated from his services due to non- renewal of his employment contract
    3. X is terminated by his employer for any reasons whatsoever
    4. X is terminated from his employment by way of punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary ac‐ tion
    Show answer

    Answer: C. X is terminated by his employer for any reasons whatsoever

    The question tests the statutory definition of 'retrenchment' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and its specific exclusions.

  11. Which one of the following Acts led to the separation of Burma from India ?

    Asked in: UPPSC Upper Mains 2011

    1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909
    2. Government of India Act, 1919
    3. Government of India Act, 1935
    4. Indian Independence Act, 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Government of India Act, 1935

    Burma was administered as a province of British India until its separation under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935. This separation came into effect on April 1, 1937.

Indian Councils Act 1861

  1. Read the following statements with reference to the Indian Councils Act (1861) and choose the correct option : (i) As a result of this Act, total members of Executive Council of Governor General became 7 (ii) For legislative work, number of additional members could be minimum of 6 and maximum of 12 (iii) No differentiation was made between State and Central subjects Which of the above statements is/are true?

    Asked in: CGPSC Prelims Exam 2021

    1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
    2. (ii) and (iii)
    3. (i) and (iii)
    4. Only (i)
    Show answer

    Answer: B. (ii) and (iii)

    - (i) The total number of members in the Executive Council of the Governor-General did not become 7 as a result of this Act. The Act added a fifth member (Finance), making the total 5 (including the Commander-in-Chief, who was an extraordinary member). A sixth member (Public Works) was added later. Statement (i) is false. - (ii) The Act provided for the addition of 6 to 12 nominated additional members to the Governor-General's Legislative Council for legislative purposes. Statement (ii) is true. - (iii) While the Act did not create formal lists of Central and Provincial subjects like later acts, it began the process of decentralization by restoring legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, allowing them to make laws on certain provincial matters. In the context of the centralisation established by earlier acts, this restoration of provincial legislative power constitutes a form of differentiation in legislative authority. Hence, stating "No differentiation was made between State and Central subjects" is false in terms of legislative power distribution, meaning the statement "No differentiation was made..." is not true. Alternatively, if 'differentiation' refers only to formal subject lists, then (iii) is true (no lists were made). Given the options, it is most likely that (iii) is considered true in the sense of no formal subject lists. - Assuming (ii) is true and (iii) is true (no formal lists), option B is correct.

  2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct ? 1. It enlarged the Governor General's Council for the purpose of making laws. 2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    Asked in: UPSC NDA 2 2021

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    - The Act of 1861 introduced a portfolio system in the executive council. - It initiated the association of Indians in the legislative process through nomination of non-official members. - It restored legislative powers to the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay. - It empowered the Governor General to issue ordinances.

  3. Under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which one of the following statements about "Theft" is correct ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. It is defined under Section 379 of the Code.
    2. It applies to both movable and immovable property.
    3. Delivery of property is essential.
    4. Property should be in possession of someone.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Property should be in possession of someone.

    Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines theft as taking movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, with the intention of taking it dishonestly. The requirement that the property must be in the possession of someone is a fundamental element of theft.

  4. "A" finds a ring lying on the highway and keeps it with him. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. "A" has committed the offence of theft.
    2. It is not theft because the ring was not in possession of anyone.
    3. It is theft because the intention of "A" was dis‐ honest.
    4. It is theft because the property is immovable and "A"s intention is dishonest.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. It is not theft because the ring was not in possession of anyone.

    The offence of theft under Section 378 of the IPC requires the movable property to be taken "out of the possession of any person". When a ring is found lying on the highway, it is considered lost property and is generally not deemed to be in the immediate possession of any specific person.

  5. "A" causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to "Z", intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to "Z"s crop. "A" has committed the offence of

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Theft.
    2. Mischief.
    3. Criminal Trespass.
    4. Criminal Misappropriation.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Mischief.

    Section 425 of the IPC defines Mischief. It involves causing destruction to property, or any such change in property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously, with intent to cause, or knowing that one is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person. Causing cattle to enter and damage crops perfectly fits this definition.

  6. Punishment for Mischief by fire or explosive substance with intent to destroy house has been prescribed in which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Section 436
    2. Section 435
    3. Section 437
    4. Section 434
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Section 436

    Section 436 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, specifically prescribes the punishment for committing mischief by fire or any explosive substance with intent to destroy, or knowing it to be likely that one will thereby cause the destruction of, any building which is ordinarily used as a human dwelling, or as a place for worship, or as a place for the custody of property.

  7. "A" without taking permission from "Z" scales the wall of "Z"s house at night and enters "Z"s house through a window. "A" has committed the offence of

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Criminal Trespass.
    2. House Breaking by Night.
    3. Lurking House Trespass by Night.
    4. House Trespass.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. House Breaking by Night.

    The act described involves entering a house ("Z"s house) in a manner that constitutes house-breaking (scaling a wall and entering through a window are specified methods in Section 445 - House Breaking). Since the act is committed "at night", it constitutes House Breaking by Night, which is an aggravated form of house-breaking defined under Section 446 of the IPC.

  8. Criminal Breach of Trust is defined under

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
    2. Section 403 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
    3. Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
    4. Section 410 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

    Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, provides the definition of the offence of Criminal Breach of Trust.

  9. A person commits the offence of Criminal Breach of Trust if he 1. misappropriates the property he is entrusted with. 2. misappropriates the property having any dominion over the same. 3. misappropriates with dishonest intention. 4. converts it to his own use. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Section 405 of the IPC defines Criminal Breach of Trust. The definition includes being entrusted with property or having dominion over property (points 1 and 2), and dishonestly misappropriating it or converting it to one's own use (points 3 and 4). All four points represent essential aspects or actions that constitute the offence as described in the section.

  10. "A" is a warehouse keeper. "Z" is going on a journey and entrusts his furniture to "A" under a contract that it shall be returned on a payment of a stipulated sum for warehouse room. "A" dishonestly sells the goods. "A" has committed the offence of

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Dishonest Misappropriation of Property.
    2. Criminal Breach of Trust.
    3. Theft.
    4. Dishonest Holding of Property.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Criminal Breach of Trust.

    "A", being a warehouse keeper, was entrusted with Z's furniture under a contract (entrustment/dominion). By dishonestly selling the goods, "A" misappropriated the property, which is a violation of the trust and the contract. This scenario perfectly fits the definition of Criminal Breach of Trust under Section 405 of the IPC.

  11. Chapter-II of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall not be deemed to effect any rule of

    Asked in: Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2011

    1. Christian Law
    2. Muslim Law
    3. Parsi Law
    4. None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None of the above

    Section 2(d) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, explicitly states that Chapter II of the Act shall not be deemed to affect any rule of Muhammadan Law.

Indian Councils Act 1909

  1. When the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in any connection with the demand for dowry, the presumption of dowry death under Section 113 B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 would be

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. conclusive proof.
    2. presumption of law.
    3. a non-rebuttable presumption.
    4. conclusive proof and non-rebuttable.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. presumption of law.

    Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, relating to the presumption of dowry death, uses the phrase "shall presume". According to Section 4 of the Act, "shall presume" means that the Court shall regard the fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved. This type of presumption is a rebuttable presumption of law. The burden is on the accused to disprove the fact presumed by the law.

  2. Which one of the following pairs of Section and Clause with regard to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correctly matched ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2021

    1. Section 113 A : Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
    2. Section 114 A : Presumption of Rape
    3. Section 112 : Presumption of legitimacy of child
    4. Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 114 : Presumption of general exceptions under IPC

    Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 allows the Court to presume the existence of certain facts, illustrated by common experience (e.g., a man who is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft is either the thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen). It does not deal with presumptions regarding general exceptions under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), such as the presumption of innocence or the burden of proving exceptions like self-defence or unsoundness of mind, which are often governed by the general principles of criminal law and specific provisions where applicable.

  3. What does 'evidence', under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, mean? 1. Statements in relation to matters of fact under inquiry which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses 2. Documents produced for the inspection of the court including electronic records Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

    Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines "Evidence". According to this definition, "Evidence" means and includes: 1. All statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; such statements are called Oral evidence. (This matches statement 1). 2. All documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court; such documents are called Documentary evidence. (This matches statement 2).

  4. Which one among the following legal propositions is *not* correct with regard to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. When there is a provision that the court may presume a fact, it may either regard such fact as proved unless it is disproved or may call for proof of it
    2. When there is a provision that the court shall presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as proved unless it is disproved
    3. When there is a provision that the court shall presume a fact, it may call for proof
    4. When one fact is declared to be conclusive proof of another, the court shall, on proof of one fact, regard the other as proved and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
    Show answer

    Answer: C. When there is a provision that the court shall presume a fact, it may call for proof

    Section 4 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines "may presume", "shall presume", and "conclusive proof". - "May presume": The court may either regard the fact as proved (unless disproved) or may call for proof. (Matches statement A). - "Shall presume": The court shall regard the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved. (Matches statement B). - "Conclusive proof": The court shall regard one fact as proved on proof of another and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it. (Matches statement D). Statement C says, "When there is a provision that the court shall presume a fact, it may call for proof". This is incorrect because "shall presume" mandates the court to accept the fact as proved until disproved; the option to "call for proof" is associated with "may presume".

  5. 'Court', under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not include which of the following?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2024

    1. Magistrates
    2. Arbitrators
    3. Civil Judges
    4. Persons legally authorized to take evidence
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Arbitrators

    Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines "Court". According to this definition, "Court" includes all Judges and Magistrates, and all persons, except arbitrators, legally authorised to take evidence.

  6. Match List – I with List – II and choose the right answer from the codes given below. (Common code for English and Telugu Versions) : List – I List – II a. Separate representation of i. Government of the Muslim Community India Act, 1935 ii. Indian Counb. Dyarchy in the provinces cils Act, 1892 iii. Indian Counc. Prescribed Federation cils Act, 1909 d. Discussion of Annual iv. Indian Coun‐ Statement cils Act, 1861 v. Government of India Act, 1919

    Asked in: APPSC Group II Mains paper 1 2025

    1. a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – ii
    2. a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – iv
    3. a – iv, b – v, c – i, d – ii
    4. a – iii, b – v, c – ii, d – i
    Show answer

    Answer: A. a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – ii

    a. Separate representation of the Muslim Community was introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms). b. Dyarchy in the provinces was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms). c. The Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed an All-India Federation, though it was not fully implemented. d. Discussion of the Annual Statement (Budget) was first permitted to members of the Legislative Councils by the Indian Councils Act, 1892.

Indian High Courts Act 1861

  1. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a witness summoned by a Court of Law to produce a document which is in his possession has to do which one of the following?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2018

    1. Shall bring it to the Court notwithstanding any objection 4. Constituent Assembly and Making of the Constitution
    2. May refuse to bring it in the interest of national security
    3. May refuse to bring it on the ground of confid‐ entiality
    4. Shall produce before the Court only if there is no objection
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Shall bring it to the Court notwithstanding any objection 4. Constituent Assembly and Making of the Constitution

    Section 162 states: "A witness summoned to produce a document shall, if it is in his possession or power, bring it to Court, notwithstanding any objection which there may be to its production or to its admissibility. The validity of any such objection shall be decided by the Court." This means the witness is obligated to bring the document regardless of any objection; the objection is for the Court to consider regarding its admissibility or inspection, not a ground for the witness to refuse production.

Indian Independence Act 1947

  1. The Indian Independence Act, 1947, came into force on

    Asked in: westbengal/WBCS Main 2019 Paper 5 2019

    1. 3rd June, 1947
    2. 18th July, 1947
    3. 26th July, 1947
    4. 14th August, 1947
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 18th July, 1947

    The Indian Independence Act, 1947, was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan. It received the Royal Assent on 18th July, 1947, which is the date it came into force.