Articles of the Constitution is part of Indian Polity and Governance. Below are notes on 15 sub-topics, followed by practice MCQs from State PSC and UPSC papers.

Articles concerning Official Language and Services under the Union and States

  • Part XIV: Services under the Union and States (Articles 308-323)
  • Article 308: Defines "State" for this Part; historically excluded J&K. Chapter II: Parliament (Articles 2. 79-122) Chapter III: Legislative Powers of the 3. President (Article 123) Chapter IV: The Union Judiciary 4. (Articles 124-147) Chapter V: Comptroller and Auditor5. General of India (Articles 148-151)
  • Part V primarily covers the Union Executive, Parliament, and Union Judiciary.
  • Part II (Articles 5-11) deals with Citizenship.
  • Part III (Articles 12-35) deals with Fundamental Rights.
  • Part IV (Articles 36-51) deals with Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Part IVA (Article 51A) deals with Fundamental Duties.

Articles on Centre-State Relations (Legislative, Administrative, Financial)

  • Part XI: Relations Between the Union and the States
  • Chapter I: Legislative Relations (Articles 245-255)
  • Article 244: Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.
  • Article 248: Residuary powers of legislation exclusively vest with Parliament.
  • Article 249: Parliament can legislate on a State List subject if Rajya Sabha declares it in national interest (resolution by 2/3 majority present & voting). Such resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding one year but can be extended.
  • Article 250: Parliament can legislate on any matter in the State List during a Proclamation of Emergency.
  • Article 252: Parliament can legislate for two or more states by their consent (resolution by concerned state legislatures). Such a law can be amended or repealed only by Parliament.
  • Article 253: Parliament can make laws for implementing any international treaty, agreement or convention, even if it falls under the State List.
  • Chapter II: Administrative Relations (Articles 256-263)
  • Article 257: State executive power must not impede or prejudice the Union's executive power. Union can give directions to states.
  • Article 261: Full faith and credit shall be given throughout India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.
  • Article 262: Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of Inter-State rivers or river valleys. Parliament provides for tribunals.
  • Article 263: Provision with respect to an Inter-State Council for coordination between states, inquire into disputes, investigate and discuss matters of common interest, and make recommendations.
  • Part XII: Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
  • Chapter I: Finance (Articles 264-291)
  • Article 265: Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law.
  • Article 266: Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts of India and of the States.
    • All revenues, loans, and recoveries form the Consolidated Fund.
    • Public Accounts: All other public monies (e.g., Provident Funds, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits). Money received by government under 'State Provident Funds' is credited to the Public Accounts Fund.
    • Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India includes: emoluments/allowances of President, debt charges, sums to satisfy court judgments/decrees/awards. Expenditure to meet natural calamities is typically voted, not charged.
  • Article 267: Contingency Fund of India/ State.
  • Article 268: Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States (e.g., stamp duties, duties of excise on medicinal & toilet preparations).
  • Article 268-A: Service tax levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the Centre and the States. (Inserted by 88th CAA, 2003; Repealed by 101st CAA, 2016).
  • Article 270: Taxes levied and collected by the Union and distributed between the Union and the States (e.g., Corporation Tax, Income Tax, Union Excise duties, Customs).
  • Article 271: Surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union (exclusively for the Centre).
  • Article 274: Bills affecting taxation in which States are interested require the prior recommendation of the President.
  • Article 293: Borrowing by States. Central government can extend loans to State Governments.
  • Article 300: Suits and proceedings by or against the Government of India or the Government of a State (Suability of the State of India).
  • Part XIII: Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the territory of India
  • Article 301: Freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India.
  • Part XIV: Services under the Union and the States
  • Article 312: All-India Services.
  • Part XVIII: Emergency Provisions
  • Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance, and to ensure government is carried on according to the Constitution.
  • Article 360: Provisions as to Financial Emergency.
  • Part XIX: Miscellaneous
  • Article 363: Bar to interference by courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc., made by princely states before the commencement of the Constitution.
  • Article 366: Definitions.
  • Part XX: Amendment of the Constitution
  • Article 368: Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor.
  • Other Relevant Articles:
  • Article 3: Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States (requires prior recommendation of the President).
  • Article 155: Appointment of the Governor by the President.
  • Article 201: Bills reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President.
  • Article 213: Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances (requires President's instructions for ordinances related to certain matters, e.g., if it would have required President's sanction for a similar bill).
  • Article 280: Finance Commission.
  • Preventive Detention: Subject in the Concurrent List. Laws can be enacted by both Parliament and State Legislatures.

Articles on Constitutional Amendment Procedures

  • Article 13(3)(a) defines "law" to include any Ordinance, order, byelaw, rule, regulation, notification, custom, or usage having the force of law.
  • Sankari Prasad case (1951) & Sajjan Singh case (1965): Held that a Constitutional Amendment Act (under Article 368) is NOT "law" within the meaning of Article 13, thus allowing Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights.
  • Golaknath case (1967): Reversed previous judgments; held that a Constitutional Amendment Act IS "law" under Article 13, and therefore, Parliament CANNOT amend Fundamental Rights.
  • 24th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971):
    • Nullified the Golaknath judgment.
    • Explicitly stated that a Constitutional Amendment Act passed under Article 368 is NOT "law" for the purpose of Article 13.
    • Affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
    • Made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill.
  • Kesavananda Bharati case (1973):
    • Upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act.
    • Affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
    • Introduced the 'Basic Structure Doctrine': Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
    • Overruled Golaknath judgment on the non-amendability of Fundamental Rights.
  • 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976): Added the following Articles:
    • Art. 39A (Free legal aid)
    • Art. 43A (Participation of workers in management of industries)
    • Art. 48A (Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife)
    • Art. 323A (Administrative Tribunals)
    • Art. 323B (Tribunals for other matters)

Articles on Emergency Provisions

  • Emergency Provisions: Contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
  • Article 352: National Emergency. Proclaimed on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (44th Amendment, 1978; originally 'internal disturbance').
  • Article 356: President's Rule (State Emergency/Constitutional Emergency). Imposed when a state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar referred to this Article as a "dead-letter."
  • Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
  • Article 360: Financial Emergency. (Note: Finance Commission is Article 280).
  • Article 361: Protection of President and Governors from criminal proceedings and arrest/imprisonment during their term of office.
  • Article 249: Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List in the national interest (if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution).
  • Article 250: Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency (under Article 352) is in operation.
  • Article 253: Power of Parliament to legislate for giving effect to international agreements.

Articles

on

Local

Self-Government

(Panchayats and Municipalities)

  • Article 243(b): Defines 'Gram Sabha'.
  • Article 243B: Deals with the Constitution of Panchayats.
  • Article 243I: Mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission for Panchayats to review their financial position.
  • Article 243K: Deals with elections to the Panchayats, empowering the State Election Commission (SEC) for this purpose.
  • Article 243Q: Deals with the Constitution of Municipalities (Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, Municipal Corporations).
  • Article 243R: Deals with the Composition of Municipalities.
  • Article 243U: Specifies the Duration of Municipalities (5 years).
  • Article 243W: Outlines the Powers, Authority, and Responsibilities of Municipalities (items in the Twelfth Schedule).
  • Article 243X: Authorizes Municipalities to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.
  • Article 243ZA: Deals with elections to the Municipalities, empowering the State Election Commission (SEC) for this purpose.
  • Article 243ZD: Deals with the Constitution of District Planning Committee (DPC).
  • Article 243ZE: Deals with the Constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC).
  • Articles 243ZH to 243ZT: These articles (Part IXB) were added by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011, concerning Co-operative Societies.
  • Article 243ZJ: Specifies that the maximum number of directors of a cooperative society may be 21.

Articles on Special Provisions for Certain States and Classes

  • Article 331: Empowered President to nominate up to two Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha (discontinued by 104th Amendment Act, 2019).
  • Article 332: Provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Legislative Assemblies of States.
  • Article 338: Establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).
  • Article 338A: Establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), separated from NCSC by 89th Amendment Act, 2003.
  • Article 340: Empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.
  • Article 342: Empowers the President to issue public notification specifying Scheduled Tribes for a State or Union Territory.
  • Article 15(4) & 16(4): Provide for reservations for SC, ST, and Socially & Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs/OBCs) in education and public employment.
  • Article 15(5): Provides for reservations for SC, ST, and OBCs in admissions to educational institutions, including private unaided institutions (added by 93rd Amendment Act, 2005).
  • Articles 15(6) & 16(6): Inserted by 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, for reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in education and public employment.
  • Article 16(4A): Allows the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion with consequential seniority for SC/ST (added by 77th Amendment Act, 1995).
  • Article 23: Prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor (economic safeguard).
  • Article 24: Prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous employment (economic safeguard).
  • Article 34: Deals with restrictions on rights during martial law (not related to economic safeguards for SCs).
  • Article 46 (Directive Principle of State Policy): Directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections.
  • Article 164: Mandates a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha (and Bihar).
  • Article 243D: Provides for reservations for SC, ST, and women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • Article 370: Pertained to the special status of Jammu & Kashmir (now abrogated/inoperative since 2019).
  • Article 35A: Added by Presidential order (1954) under Article 370; conferred special rights to J&K permanent residents regarding property, employment, etc. (abrogated in 2019).
  • Article 371 series (Part XXI) provides special provisions for various states:
    • Article 371: Maharashtra and Gujarat (e.g., separate development boards, equitable fund allocation).
    • Article 371A: Nagaland.
    • Article 371B: Assam.
    • Article 371C: Manipur.
    • Article 371D & 371E: Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
    • Article 371F: Sikkim.
    • Article 371G: Mizoram.
    • Article 371H: Arunachal Pradesh.
    • Article 371I: Goa.
    • Article 371J: Hyderabad-Karnataka region (now Karnataka).

Articles Pertaining to Citizenship

  • Articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deal with Citizenship.
  • The Constitution was adopted and came into force partly on November 26, 1949.
  • Articles that came into force on November 26, 1949, include:
    • Citizenship: Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.
    • Elections: Article 324.
    • Provisional Parliament, temporary & transitional provisions: Articles 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392, 393.
  • Election Commission of India (ECI):
  • Article 324: Composition, powers, functions, superintendence, direction, and control of elections for Parliament, State Legislatures, President, and Vice-President.
  • Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
  • Article 326: Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
  • Articles 324 to 329 generally apply to election provisions for both States and Union Territories.
  • Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) & State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs):
  • Part XIV, Chapter II (Articles 315-323) deals with Public Service Commissions.
  • Article 315: Provision for Public Service Commissions for the Union and for each State.
  • Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members of PSCs.
  • Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of a Public Service Commission (ensures independence).
  • Article 320: Functions of Public Service Commissions, including consultation on disciplinary matters (e.g., affecting persons serving under a State Government).
  • Article 321: Power to extend functions of Public Service Commissions (vested in Parliament).
  • Article 322: Expenses of Public Service Commissions (charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India/State, ensuring independence).
  • Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions (submission of annual report of work done by PSCs to the President/Governor, ensuring accountability and transparency).
  • All India Services (AIS):
  • Article 312: Power of Rajya Sabha to propose the formation of new All India Services.
  • Finance Commission (FC):
  • Article 280: Constitution of the Finance Commission by the President. (Note: Article 282 is for general expenditure, not for the Finance Commission itself).
  • Inter-State Council:
  • Article 263: Provisions with respect to an Inter-State Council.
  • Tribunals:
  • Part XIVA of the Indian Constitution (inserted by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976) deals with Tribunals.
  • Article 323A: Administrative Tribunals (established by Parliament).
  • Article 323B: Tribunals for other matters (established by Parliament or State Legislatures).
  • GST Council (Goods and Services Tax Council):
  • Article 279A: Constitution of the GST Council by the President of India.
  • National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
  • Article 338: Provisions related to the NCSC.
  • Backward Classes Commission:
  • Article 340: Appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.
  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
  • Article 148: Appointment, oath, and conditions of service of the CAG.
  • Supreme Court of India:
  • Article 124: Establishment and Constitution of the Supreme Court. Articles 124(4) and 124(5) deal with the procedure for removal and power of Parliament to regulate it. The procedure for removal of High Court judges is similar, via Article 217(1) proviso, read with Article 218.
  • Definition of 'State':
  • Article 12: Definition of 'State' which applies to both Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).

Article 161: Governor's power to grant par1. dons, reprieves, respites, remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases. Article 164: 2.

    • Chief Minister appointed by Governor; other Ministers appointed by Governor on CM's advice.
    • Council of Ministers (CoM) collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
    • A Minister not a member of the Legislature for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
    • Clause 1A (inserted by 91st Amendment, 2003): Total number of Ministers (including CM) in State CoM shall not exceed 15% of total members of Legislative Assembly (but minimum 12 members). Article 165: Advocate General for the State. 3.
    • Appointed by Governor.
    • Must be qualified to be appointed as a High Court Judge.
    • Holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
    • Remuneration determined by the Governor.
    • Highest law officer of the State.
    • Has the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of, the State Legislature, but without a right to vote.
    • No specified age limit for appointment or holding office. Article 168: Constitution of Legislatures in 4. States (provision for bicameral or unicameral legislatures). Article 169: Parliament's power to create or 5. abolish Legislative Councils in States, if the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority. Article 178: Speaker and Deputy Speaker of 6. the Legislative Assembly. Article 195: Salaries and allowances of 7. members of the State Legislature. Article 199: Definition of 'Money Bills' 8. (State Legislature). Article 200: Governor's assent to Bills, power 9. to withhold assent, return Bill for reconsideration, or reserve Bill for President's consideration. Article 201: Bills reserved for consideration 10. of the President (President's options on such Bills). Article 208: Rules of Procedure for the State 11. Legislature. Article 209: Regulation by law of procedure 12. in the State Legislature in relation to financial business. Article 210: Language to be used in the State 13. Legislature. Article 211: Restriction on discussion in the 14. Legislature. Article 212: Courts not to inquire into pro15. ceedings of the Legislature. Article 213: Governor's power to promulgate 16. Ordinances during recess of Legislature. Article 267(2): Contingency Fund of the 17. State.
    • Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest.
    • The fund is placed at the disposal of the Governor.
    • Meant to enable advances for unforeseen expenditure pending authorization by the Legislature.
  • Indian judicial process is based on the procedure established by law.
  • Article 13: Provides for judicial review of laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights.
  • Supreme Court (Part V, Chapter IV):
    • Article 32: Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction, including Habeas Corpus). Basis for judicial review power.
    • Article 124C: (Repealed by Supreme Court) Pertained to the power of Parliament to make law for appointment of judges (related to National Judicial Appointments Commission).
    • Article 125: Salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court Judges.
    • Article 126: Appointment of Acting Chief Justice of India.
    • Article 129: Supreme Court to be a court of record.
    • Article 130: Seat of the Supreme Court.
    • Article 132: Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in constitutional cases.
    • Article 137: Power of the Supreme Court to review its own judgment or order.
    • Article 141: Law declared by the Supreme Court to be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
    • Article 143: Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court (Advisory jurisdiction).
    • Article 145: Rules of Court, etc. (Empowers SC to make rules for regulating its practice and procedure; e.g., Supreme Court Rules, 1966).
  • High Courts (Part VI, Chapter V):
    • Article 215: High Courts to be courts of record.
    • Article 222: Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another (by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India).
    • Article 226: Power of High Courts to issue certain writs (including Habeas Corpus) for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. Basis for judicial review power.
    • Article 227: Power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction (by the High Court).
    • Article 231: Establishment of a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory (by Parliament).
  • Subordinate Courts (Part VI, Chapter VI):
    • Articles 233 to 237: Relate to the appointment of District Judges, recruitment of persons other than District Judges to the judicial service, control over subordinate courts, and application of provisions to certain classes of magistrates.
    • Article 236(a): Defines "District Judge" to include: Judge of a city civil court, Additional District Judge, Joint District Judge, Assistant District Judge, Chief Judge of a small cause court, Chief Presidency Magistrate, Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate, Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judge, and Assistant Sessions Judge. (The term does NOT include a tribunal judge).
  • All India Judicial Service:
    • Article 312: Parliament may by law provide for the creation of an All India Judicial Service common to the Union and the States (requires a Rajya Sabha resolution passed by special majority).
  • Article 2: Parliament may admit new States into the Union.
  • Article 3: Parliament may form new States, alter areas/boundaries/names of existing States.
  • Article 52: There shall be a President of India.
  • Article 54: Election of the President.
  • Article 56: Term of office of President.
  • Article 58: Qualifications for election as President (Age 35 years).
  • Article 59(1): President shall not hold any other office of profit.
  • Article 59(2): Conditions of President's office.
  • Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the President (to Preserve, Protect and Defend the Constitution).
  • Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the President (ground: violation of the Constitution).
  • Article 67(b): Removal of Vice-President.
  • Article 72: Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases (mercy petition).
  • Article 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President; President can refer a matter back for reconsideration (44th AA).
  • Article 75(1): Prime Minister appointed by President; other Ministers appointed by President on PM's advice.
  • Article 75(1A): Total number of Ministers (incl. PM) in Union CoM not to exceed 15% of total members of Lok Sabha.
  • Article 75(2): Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President (individual responsibility to Head of State).
  • Article 75(3): Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
  • Article 75(5): A Minister not a member of either House for 6 consecutive months ceases to be a Minister.
  • Article 76: Attorney General for India (Appointment, duties).
  • Article 78: Duties of Prime Minister as respects furnishing information to the President.
  • Article 79: Constitution of Parliament (President + Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha).
  • Article 80: Composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), includes nomination of 12 members by the President.
  • Article 81: Composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
  • Article 82: Readjustment after each census (freeze on seats till 2026).
  • Article 87: Special address by the President (at commencement of first session after each general election and first session of each year).
  • Article 88: Rights of Ministers and AttorneyGeneral as respects Houses (can speak, take part, no right to vote).
  • Article 89: The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.
  • Article 90: Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the office of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • Article 93: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.
  • Article 94: Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
  • Article 98: Secretariat of Parliament.
  • Article 99: Oath or Affirmation by Members of Parliament.
  • Article 102(1)(a): Disqualifications for membership of Parliament (e.g., holding office of profit).
  • Article 103: Decision on questions as to disqualifications of members (President to obtain opinion of Election Commission).
  • Article 108: Joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases (President's intention/notification required to summon).
  • Article 109: Special procedure in respect of Money Bills (Rajya Sabha's limited powers).
  • Article 110: Definition of "Money Bill" (Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; regulation of borrowing; custody of CFI/Contingency Fund; appropriation from CFI). Excludes fines by local authority for local purposes.
  • Article 111: President's power to assent to Bills (veto power).
  • Article 112: Annual Financial Statement (Budget); term 'Budget' not used in Constitution.
  • Article 113: Procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates.
  • Article 117: Special provisions as to financial Bills (Bills imposing tax require President's recommendation for introduction).
  • Article 120(1): Language to be used in Parliament (Speaker can allow speaking in mother tongue).
  • Article 121: Restriction on discussion in Parliament regarding conduct of Judges.
  • Article 123: Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament.
  • Article 137: Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court.
  • Article 143: Power of President to consult Supreme Court.
  • Article 153: There shall be a Governor for each State.
  • Article 154: Executive power of State vested in the Governor.
  • Article 155: Appointment of Governor by the President.
  • Article 156: Term of office of Governor (holds office during pleasure of President).
  • Article 160: Discharge of the functions of the Governor in certain contingencies.
  • Article 162: Extent of executive power of State.
  • Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor.
  • Article 164: Other provisions as to Ministers (CM appointed by Governor; other Ministers by Governor on CM's advice).
  • Article 165: Advocate-General for the State.
  • Article 167: Duties of Chief Minister as respects furnishing information to Governor, etc.
  • Article 227: Power of superintendence by High Court over all courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.
  • Article 240: Power of President to make regulations for certain Union Territories.
  • Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions to be regarded as matters of procedure only.
  • Article 266(1): Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account of India (all revenues, loans, etc., credited).
  • Article 300: Suits and proceedings (Government of India can sue or be sued).
  • Article 304(b): Bills imposing reasonable restrictions on freedom of trade/commerce within a state require President's previous sanction.
  • Article 310: Doctrine of Pleasure (tenure of persons serving the Union or a State).
  • Article 311: Protection to civil servants against dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank. Doctrine of Pleasure is subject to Articles 309 and 311.
  • Article 312(2): Parliament may by law provide for creation of All India Services if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution.
  • Article 326: Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage (Age 18).
  • Article 361: Protection of President and Governors from criminal proceedings during term of office.
  • President resigns to Vice-President. VicePresident resigns to President.
  • Supreme Court Judge resigns to President.
  • Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is removed in like manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • Contingency Fund of India: Used by Government of India to meet unforeseen expenses.
  • Minimum Age for various offices: President (35), Member of Panchayat (21), Member of State Legislative Assembly (25), Member of State Legislative Council (30).

Directive Principles of State Policy Articles

  • Article 37: Application of DPSP; fundamental in governance but not enforceable by any court.
  • Article 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
  • Article 39: Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: secure adequate means of livelihood, equitable distribution, equal pay for equal work, health of workers, nonabuse of children.
  • Article 39A: Equal justice and free legal aid (added by 42nd Amendment).
  • Article 40: Organization of Village Panchayats.
  • Article 41: Right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
  • Article 42: Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
  • Article 43: Living wage, etc., for workers.
  • Article 43A: Participation of workers in management of industries (added by 42nd Amendment).
  • Article 43B: Promotion of Cooperative Societies (added by 97th Amendment).
  • Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for the citizens.
  • Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (amended by 86th Amendment; originally free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years).
  • Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections.
  • Article 48: Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines, including prohibiting the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle.
  • Article 48A: Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife (added by 42nd Amendment).
  • Article 50: Separation of judiciary from executive.
  • Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security, maintenance of just and honorable relations between nations, fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encouragement of settlement of international disputes by arbitration (relates to Indian Foreign Policy).

Fundamental Duties Articles

  • Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the Constitution, under Article 51A.
  • They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • Originally, there were 10 Fundamental Duties; the 11th duty was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
  • Article 51A enumerates 11 Fundamental Duties.
  • Article 51A(h) specifically states "to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform."

Fundamental Rights Articles

  • Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12-35) deals with Fundamental Rights (FRs).
  • FRs available to citizens only: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30.
  • FRs available to both citizens and aliens (persons): Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28.
  • Article 12: Definition of 'State'
    • Includes: Government & Parliament of India, Government & Legislatures of States, all local & other authorities within Indian territory or under control of Government of India.
    • Covers statutory/non-statutory bodies if performing governmental functions or deeply controlled (e.g., National Book Trust, State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT), Union Public Service Commission, Municipal Corporation, Delhi).
    • Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is generally NOT considered 'State' under Article 12.
  • Article 13: Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights
    • Article 13(1): Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with FRs become void to the extent of inconsistency (Doctrine of Eclipse).
    • Article 13(2): State cannot make any law that takes away or abridges FRs; any such law is void to the extent of contravention (Doctrine of Severability). Applies to future laws.
    • Article 13(3): Defines 'law' to include ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom, or usage having the force of law. Customary laws can be tested.
    • Article 13(4): (Added by 24th CAA, 1971) Constitutional amendments made under Article 368 are not considered 'law' under Article 13.
  • Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
    • Article 14: Equality before law and Equal protection of laws
      • Guaranteed to all persons (citizens and non-citizens).
      • Embraces the concept of 'Rule of Law'.
      • Prohibits arbitrary action and unguided/uncontrolled discretionary power.
      • Ensures equality for men and women, and non-discrimination against third gender.
      • Doctrine of 'Legitimate Expectation' is linked to Article 14.
    • Article 15: Prohibition of Discrimination
      • No discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
      • Article 15(3): State can make special provisions for women and children.
      • Article 15(4): State can make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
      • Article 15(5): (Inserted by 93rd CAA, 2006) Enables State to make special provisions for admission to educational institutions (including private, aided or unaided, but excluding minority institutions under Article 30(1)) for backward classes, SCs/STs.
    • Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
      • No discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence.
      • Article 16(4): State can make provision for reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens not adequately represented in State services.
      • Article 16(4A): (Inserted by 77th CAA, 1995, and 85th CAA, 2001) Empowers State to provide for reservation in matters of promotion with consequential seniority for SCs and STs ("Catch up" rule).
    • Article 17: Abolition of Untouchability
      • Untouchability is abolished, and its practice in any form is forbidden.
      • Practice of untouchability is an offense punishable in accordance with law.
      • Parliament can enact law for punishment (e.g., Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, renamed Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1976).
    • Article 18: Abolition of Titles
      • Article 18(1): No title (except military or academic distinction) shall be conferred by the State.
      • Article 18(2): No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
      • Article 18(3): No person who is not a citizen of India (while holding office of profit/trust under State) shall accept any title from any foreign State without President's consent.
      • Article 18(4): No person holding any office of profit/trust under State shall accept any present, emolument, or office from or under any foreign State without President's consent.
      • Balaji Raghavan v/s Union of India (1996): Supreme Court declared that national awards like 'Bharat Ratna' and 'Padma Vibhushan' are not 'titles' under Article 18 and do not violate 'right to equality'.
      • Padma Awards (instituted 1954) were suspended twice (1977-1980 and 1992-1995).
      • Number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
  • Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
    • Article 19: Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
      • Guarantees six freedoms to citizens: Freedom of speech and 1. expression (includes Freedom of Press, Right to Internet, Right to know antecedents of contesting candidates). Freedom to assemble 2. peacefully and without arms. Freedom to form associ3. ations or unions or co-operative societies. Freedom to move freely 4. throughout the territory of India. Freedom to reside and 5. settle in any part of the territory of India. Freedom to practice any 6. profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
      • These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions.
    • Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences
      • Article 20(1): No ex-post-facto law (no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence).
      • Article 20(2): No double jeopardy (no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once).
      • Article 20(3): No self-incrimination (no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself).
    • Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty
      • "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."
      • Supreme Court has expanded its scope to include various rights such as: Right to live with human dignity, Right to privacy (Puttaswamy case), Right to a speedy trial, Right to a clean environment, Right to health, Right to access to the internet.
      • The concept of 'natural justice' is included under Article 21.
      • Scope was expanded to include Right to Education due to Unnikrishnan v/s State of Andhra Pradesh case.
    • Article 21A: Right to Education
      • (Inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002)
      • State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children between the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This is a Fundamental Right.
    • Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
      • Provides safeguards for arrested persons:
      • Right to be informed of grounds of arrest.
      • Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
      • Right to be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours (excluding travel time).
      • Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours without Magistrate's authority.
      • These safeguards do not apply to enemy aliens or persons arrested/detained under preventive detention laws.
      • Preventive Detention: Maximum period is 3 months, unless an Advisory Board finds sufficient cause for longer detention.
      • The first Preventive Detention Act was enacted in 1950.
      • Right to get bail is not explicitly provided under Article 22, it's a statutory right.
  • Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
    • Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
      • Prohibits traffic in human beings, Begar (forced labor without payment), and other similar forms of forced labor.
      • State can impose compulsory service for public purposes (e.g., military service, social service) without discrimination.
    • Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
      • No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
  • Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
    • Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
      • Guaranteed to all persons (citizens and non-citizens).
      • Subject to public order, morality, health, and other Fundamental Rights.
      • Concepts of faith, belief, and worship are foundations.
    • Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs
      • Every religious denomination (or any section thereof) has the right to:
      • Establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
      • Manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
      • Acquire movable and immovable property.
      • Administer such property in accordance with law.
      • This power is not absolute; it is subject to public order, morality, and health.
    • Article 27: Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
      • No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
    • Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
      • No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
      • In State-aided or recognized institutions, no person shall be compelled to attend religious instruction or worship without consent (or guardian's consent for minor).
  • Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)
    • Article 29: Protection of interests of Minorities
      • Any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to conserve the same.
      • No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
      • Available only to citizens.
    • Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
      • All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
      • In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority.
      • Available only to citizens.
  • Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
    • Article 32(1): The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part (FRs) is guaranteed.
    • Article 32(2): The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, certiorari) for the enforcement of any of the FRs.
    • Dr. B. R. Ambedkar termed Article 32 as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution.
    • It is a Fundamental Right itself.
    • This right can be exercised for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights only. For other legal rights, one approaches High Courts under Article 226.
  • Right to Property
    • Originally a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
    • Removed from the list of FRs by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
    • Now a Constitutional Right (legal right) under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.
    • Article 300A states: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
  • Article 335: Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts
    • Claims of SCs/STs for appointment to services and posts shall be considered consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
    • Supreme Court has held that reservation policies under Article 16(4) are limited by Article 335.
    • Article 335 does not define the term 'efficiency of administration'.
  • Article 31D: (Prohibition of anti-national activities) was inserted by 42nd CAA, 1976 and repealed by 43rd CAA, 1977.
  • Right to vote and to be elected: A Constitutional Right (under Article 326), not a Fundamental Right.
  • Article 46: (DPSP) Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.

Structure and Organization of Articles (Parts, Chapters, Schedules)

  • Original Constitution (1950): Contained 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules.
  • Current Constitution (as amended): Numerically, the last Article is 395; however, due to insertions like 21A, 51A, 300A, etc., the total number of Articles is approximately 448-470+. It has 25 Parts and 12 Schedules.
  • Article 1: Defines the name and territory of India.
    • Article 1(1): States "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States."
    • Article 1(3): Specifies that the territory of India comprises the territories of the States, the Union Territories, and such other territories as may be acquired.
    • The term "Federation" or "Federal" is not explicitly used anywhere in the Constitution.
  • Article 393: Provides the short title of the Constitution, stating: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India."
  • Article 300: Specifies that the legal name of the Government of India, for purposes of suits and proceedings, is "The Union of India."
  • Terminology: The term "Budget" is not used in the Constitution; instead, "Annual Financial Statement" (Article 112) is used. "Appropriation Bill" (Article 114) and "Consolidated Fund of India" (Article 266) are constitutional terms.
  • Functions of the Constitution:
    • Guarantees a set of rights to citizens.

9. Schedules

Practice MCQs: Articles of the Constitution

Articles concerning Official Language and Services under the Union and States

  1. Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2017

    1. Article 310
    2. Article 311
    3. Article 312
    4. Article 317
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 311

    Article 311(1) states that no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all- India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed. Article 311(2) mandates that no such person shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.

  2. Under which Article of the Constitution a Speaker allows any member to speak in Parliament in his/her mother language ?

    Asked in: RO ARO 2020 · HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2023

    1. Article 19(1)
    2. Article 343(1) 52. Which one among the following is NOT correctly matched ? Provision - Part of the Con‐ stitution A. Citizenship - Part - II B. The Union Territories - Part - VII
    3. The Municipalities - Part - IX A
    4. Elections - Part - XV
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 343(1) 52. Which one among the following is NOT correctly matched ? Provision - Part of the Con‐ stitution A. Citizenship - Part - II B. The Union Territories - Part - VII

    The Constitution of India is divided into Parts, each dealing with specific subjects. It is crucial to know which Part corresponds to which provision. C. Article 120(1) D. Article 210(1) Ans: C - Article 120 pertains to the language to be used in Parliament. - It states that business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English, but the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother tongue.

  3. Which one of the following statements about dismissal or removal of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or State (Article 311) is not correct ?

    Asked in: MPSC CS Prelims 2022

    1. Protection under Article 311 is not available to military personnel.
    2. The employees of statutory corporations such as the LIC, ONGC are not entitled to the protection of Article 311.
    3. The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to permanent civil servants only and not to temporary servants.
    4. Suspension of government servant from ser‐ vice is neither dismissal nor removal and is not within the scope of protection of Article 311.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to permanent civil servants only and not to temporary servants.

    Statement (A) is correct; Article 311 applies to persons holding civil posts, thus excluding military personnel. Statement (B) is correct; Employees of statutory corporations are not typically considered civil servants under the Union or State government and thus are not covered by Article 311. Statement (D) is correct; Suspension is not considered dismissal or removal and does not attract the protection of Article 311. Statement (C) is incorrect; Article 311 protection extends to all civil servants holding a civil post, including temporary ones, if their dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank is by way of punishment. The distinction lies in whether the termination is punitive or simply in accordance with the terms of employment for temporary service.

  4. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavor of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups ?

    Asked in: PPSC CS Prelims 2021

    1. Article 349
    2. Article 350
    3. Article 350 A
    4. Article 361 A
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 350 A

    Article 350A was inserted into the Constitution by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.

  5. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 308 to 314 of the constitution with regard to the All India services. 2. Article 308 exclusively apply to the Jammu and Kashmir. 3. The Parliament has enacted the All India Services Act in 1952. 4. Article 312 empowers the Parliament to create new All India Services Choose the correct answer:

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2019

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2 only
    3. 4 only
    4. 4 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 4

    - Part XIV (Articles 308-323) of the Constitution deals with services, including AIS. - Article 312 grants Parliament the power to create new All India Services. - Article 308 was related to the application of Part XIV to Jammu and Kashmir (exclusion before 2019). - The All India Services Act was passed in 1951.

  6. The provision under Article 350A of the Constitution of India relates to the:

    Asked in: UPSC CAPF 2015

    1. right of any section of the citizens to preserve its distinct language and culture
    2. right of the Sikh community to carrying and wearing of kirpans
    3. provision for providing facilities for instruc‐ tion in mother-tongue at primary stage
    4. freedom of Minority-managed educational in‐ stitutions from discrimination in the matter of receiving aid from the State
    Show answer

    Answer: C. provision for providing facilities for instruc‐ tion in mother-tongue at primary stage

    This provision was added to the Constitution by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission. It is a measure aimed at protecting the linguistic rights of minority groups.

Articles on Centre-State Relations (Legislative, Administrative, Financial)

  1. Match the following Articles of the Constitution of India with their provisions correctly. Article Provisions a. 268 1. Surcharge on certain taxes and duties for purposes of the Centre. b. 2. Service tax levied by the Centre. 270 c. 271 3. Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States. d. 4. Taxes levied and collected by the 268- Centre but distributed between the A Centre and the States.

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 2 2024

    1. a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
    2. a - 1, b - 3, c - 2, d - 4
    3. a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
    4. a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2

    - Article 268 deals with taxes levied by Union but collected/appropriated by States. - Article 270 deals with taxes levied/collected by Union but distributed between Union and States. - Article 271 deals with surcharges exclusively for the Union. - Article 268- A previously dealt with Service Tax sharing.

  2. Which of the following articles prevents courts from interfering in disputes arising out of certain treaties and agreements made by princely states before the commencement of the Constitution?

    Asked in: HAS Prelims 2021

    1. Article 358
    2. Article 363
    3. Article 366
    4. Article 368
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 363

    Article 363 of the Constitution of India specifically states that notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, the Supreme Court or any other court shall not have jurisdiction in any dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument which was entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution by any Ruler of an Indian State and to which the Government of the Dominion of India or any of its predecessor Governments was a party and which has or has been continued in operation after such commencement, or in any dispute in respect of any right accruing under or any liability or obligation arising out of any of the provisions of this Constitution relating to any such treaty, agreement, etc. This article effectively barred judicial intervention in matters arising from agreements with former princely states, including aspects like privy purses.

  3. Which of the following Article bars the courts from interfering in disputes arising out of certain treaties and agreements made by the Princely States before the commencement of the Constitution?

    Asked in: HAS Prelims 2021

    1. Article 358
    2. Article 363
    3. Article 366
    4. Article 368
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 363

    Article 363 of the Constitution contains a specific bar on the jurisdiction of courts in certain disputes arising out of treaties, agreements, covenants, sanads, etc., entered into by the Rulers of Indian States with the Government of the Dominion of India or any of its predecessor Governments before the commencement of the Constitution, and which have continued in operation after such commencement. This Article was included to provide legal certainty during the process of integration of Princely States into the Indian Union.

  4. Match List - I with List - II : List - I (Art‐ List - II (Provisions) icles) I. Taxes not to be imposed save by a. 265 authority of law b. 266 II. Consolidated fund of India c. 267 III. Contingency fund d. 263 IV. Inter-state council Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    Asked in: HAS Prelims 2022

    1. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
    2. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
    3. a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
    4. a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
    Show answer

    Answer: A. a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

    Articles 263-307 in Part XII of the Constitution deal with Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits. Article 263 is in Part XI, dealing with relations between the Union and the States.

  5. Money received by the government under the 'State Provident Funds' is credited to the

    Asked in: JPSC CS Prelims 2014

    1. Contingency Fund
    2. Consolidated Fund
    3. General Development Fund
    4. Public Accounts Fund
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Public Accounts Fund

    Money received by the government under schemes like State Provident Funds, small savings schemes, deposits, etc., where the government acts as a banker or trustee, is credited to the Public Account of India.

  6. Match the Articles of the Constitution (List I) with the Subjects (List II) : List I (Articles of the Constitution) A. Article 155 B. Article 201 C. Article 213 D. Article 312 List II (Subjects) I. All India Services II. President's power to appoint the Governor III. Instructions of the President required for the Governor to make ordinance relating to certain matters IV. Bills reserved for consideration of the President by the Governor Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below : A B C D (1) I II III IV (2) II III I IV (3) II IV III I (4) IV III II I

    Asked in: KPSC KAS Prelims 2015

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer

    Answer: C. (3)

    This question tests knowledge of specific articles of the Indian Constitution related to the executive and legislative powers at the Union and State levels, as well as administrative services.

Articles on Constitutional Amendment Procedures

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2019

    1. According to Article 13 of the Indian Constitu‐ tion, "law" includes any Ordinance, order, byelaw, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
    2. Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971 excluded Constitutional Amendment Acts from the purview of "law" under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution.
    3. Both A and B
    4. Neither A nor B
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both A and B

    Article 13 defines what constitutes "law" and declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of fundamental rights are void. The 24th Amendment Act significantly altered the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Constitutional Amendments under Article 13.

  2. Which Four Articles of Indian Constitution among the below given Articles were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 ? (1) Art. 24 (A) (2) Art. 28 (A) (3) Art. 39 (A) (4) Art. 43 (A) (5) Art. 46 (A) (6) Art. 48 (A) (7) Art. 144 (A) (8) Art. 323 (A)

    Asked in: OPSC CS Prelims 2023

    1. 1, 3, 5 and 7
    2. 3, 4, 6 and 7
    3. 2, 5, 7 and 8
    4. 1, 3, 5 and 8
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 3, 4, 6 and 7

    Let's examine which of the given Articles were added by the 42nd CA: (1) Art. 24A: Does not exist in the Constitution. (Child labor is in Art 24). (2) Art. 28A: Does not exist in the Constitution. (3) Art. 39A: Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid. (Added by 42nd CA). (4) Art. 43A: Participation of workers in management of industries. (Added by 42nd CA). (5) Art. 46A: Does not exist in the Constitution. (Promotion of educational/economic interests of weaker sections is in Art 46). (6) Art. 48A: Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life. (Added by 42nd CA). (7) Art. 144A: Special provisions as to disposal of questions relating to the constitutional validity of laws. (Added by 42nd CA, but repealed by 43rd CA 1977). (8) Art. 323A: Administrative Tribunals. (Added by 42nd CA). From the provided list, Articles 39A, 43A, 48A, 144A, and 323A were added by the 42nd CA. There are five such articles in the list. The question asks for four articles. Option B lists articles corresponding to numbers 3, 4, 6, and 7 which are 39A, 43A, 48A, and 144A. All these four articles were indeed added by the 42nd CA. Other options include articles (24A, 28A, 46A) that do not exist. Option B contains four articles from the list that were added by the 42nd CA.

  3. The doctrine of 'basic structure' in the context of Indian Constitution was propounded in which of the following cases for the first time?

    Asked in: mppsc 2025 2025

    1. Sankari Prasad V. Union of India
    2. Champakam Dorairajan V. State of Madras
    3. Golaknath V. State of Punjab
    4. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala

    The 'basic structure' doctrine limits the amending power of the Parliament, stating that it cannot amend the Constitution in a way that alters its basic framework or essential features.

  4. In which case, the Supreme Court pronounced that the enactment of Law under the Article-368 is 'Law' within the meaning of Article-13 ?

    Asked in: Assistant Conservator of Forest 2025

    1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
    2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
    3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
    4. Romesh Thapar vs. State of Madras
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab

    The Supreme Court in the Golaknath vs. State of Punjab case held that amendments under Article 368 are 'law' under Article 13, thereby restricting Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights.

  5. Which judgment first articulated the Basic Structure doctrine with respect to Indian constitution?

    Asked in: mineral dev officier 2025

    1. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
    2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
    4. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

    The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case is the foundational judgment for the Basic Structure doctrine in Indian constitutional law.

Articles on Emergency Provisions

  1. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution was to remain a dead-letter ?

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2014

    1. Article 360
    2. Article 356
    3. Article 352
    4. Article 32
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 356

    The term "dead-letter" implies a law or provision that exists but is never or rarely put into practice. Ambedkar hoped that the states would manage their affairs without the need for central intervention under Article 356.

  2. "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution." Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the above statement ?

    Asked in: KPSC KAS Prelims 2015

    1. Article 355
    2. Article 356
    3. Article 352
    4. Article 358
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 355

    Article 355 imposes two duties on the Union government: 1. To protect every state from external aggression and internal disturbance. 2. To ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

  3. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which Article of the Indian Constitution was meant to remain a dead-letter?

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2014

    1. Article 360
    2. Article 356
    3. Article 352
    4. Article 32
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 356

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, while debating the emergency provisions in the Constituent Assembly, expressed his hope that Article 356 (Provisions in case of failure of Constitutional machinery in State) would be used only as a last resort and that it would remain a "dead letter" in the Constitution, meaning it would rarely, if ever, be invoked.

  4. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 1. Article 361 - The President enjoys protection from criminal proceedings against him in court of law 2. Article 352 - National emergency 3. Article 356 - President Rule in State 4. Article 360 - Finance commission

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2022

    1. 1 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 4 Only
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 4 Only

    Specific articles of the Constitution related to key functions like emergency provisions, constitutional bodies, and protection of high office holders are frequently tested.

  5. Point out the mismatched pair : - Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State list in the - Article 249 national interest - Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the - Article 250 State List if a proclamation of emergency is in operation

    Asked in: Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013

    1. Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State list in the national interest - Article 249
    2. Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a proclamation of emergency is in operation - Article 250
    3. Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent - Article 251
    4. Legislation for giving effect to international agreements - Article 253
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent - Article 251

    Article 249 grants Parliament the power to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest. Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List matters during a proclamation of Emergency. Article 252 deals with the power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by their consent. Article 253 concerns legislation for giving effect to international agreements.

Articles on Local Self-Government (Panchayats and Municipalities)

  1. Under which Article the State Election Commission Operates the election of urban bodies ?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2019

    1. 243 K
    2. 243 L
    3. 243 M
    4. 243 N
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 243 K

    Article 243K deals with elections to the Panchayats and establishes the State Election Commission. Article 243ZA (Part IXA) deals with elections to Municipalities and vests the power with the SEC constituted under 243K. Since 243ZA is not an option, 243K is the most appropriate choice as it is the article that constitutes the State Election Commission whose function is extended to urban bodies.

  2. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India deals with District Planning Committee ?

    Asked in: UPSC NDA 2 2023

    1. 243ZD
    2. 243ZB
    3. 243ZE
    4. 243ZC
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 243ZD

    Part IXA of the Constitution (inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992) deals with Municipalities. Article 243ZD mandates the constitution of a Committee for District Planning in every District to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the District and to prepare a draft development plan for the District as a whole.

  3. According to Article 243(ZJ) of Indian Constitution the maximum number of directors of a cooperative society may be

    Asked in: UPPCS Prelims 2016

    1. 21
    2. 15
    3. 11
    4. 7
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 21

    Article 243ZJ(1) of the Constitution, inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 (relating to Co-operative Societies), states that the board of a co-operative society shall consist of such number of directors as may be provided by the State Legislature, provided that "the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-one".

  4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (1) Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Municipalities - Article 243 W (2) Composition of Municipalities - Article 243 B (3) Constitution of Municipalities - Article 243 Q (4) Duration of Municipalities - Article 243 U (5) Question not attempted

    Asked in: Asst. Director (Sci. and Tech. Dept.) 2024

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer

    Answer: B. (2)

    - This question relates to Part IXA of the Constitution of India, which deals with Municipalities. - It tests the knowledge of specific articles related to the structure and functioning of urban local bodies.

  5. The committee for Metropolitan planning is constituted under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

    Asked in: Protection Officer 2018

    1. Article 243 ZE
    2. Article 243 ZF
    3. Article 243 ZG
    4. Article 243 ZH
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 243 ZG

    Part IXA of the Constitution, which deals with Municipalities, includes Articles 243P to 243ZG. Article 243ZG specifically addresses the establishment and functions of Metropolitan Planning Committees.

  6. Which of the following article of the Constitution of India authorise municipalities to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees ?

    Asked in: Protection Officer 2022

    1. Article 243W
    2. Article 243X
    3. Article 243Y
    4. Article 243Z
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 243X

    Part IXA of the Constitution, dealing with Municipalities, contains provisions related to their powers and functions. Article 243W lists the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities, while Article 243X specifically deals with their power to impose taxes.

Articles on Special Provisions for Certain States and Classes

  1. Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to nominate not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha?

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2015

    1. Article 79
    2. Article 114
    3. Article 331
    4. Article 334
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 331

    - Article 331 was specifically dedicated to the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha through nomination. - Article 334 originally specified that provisions relating to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and the representation of the Anglo-Indian community by nomination would cease after 10 years from the commencement of the Constitution, but this period was extended multiple times through subsequent amendments. - The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, extended the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for another 10 years but discontinued the provision for nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.

  2. Article 371 A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2019

    1. Nagaland
    2. Mizoram
    3. Sikkim
    4. Manipur
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Nagaland

    This article protects the religious or social practices of the Nagas, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources.

  3. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Article 35A of Indian Constitution? 1. It was added to the Constitution by a Presidential order 2. The Article was introduced with Article 370 3. It was a special provision under directive Principles of State Policy 4. It deals with right to Constitutional Remedies

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2019

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    - Statement 1 is correct: Article 35A was added to the Constitution through a Presidential Order, namely, The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, issued under Article

  4. - Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 370 was included in the original Constitution adopted in 1950. Article 35A was added much later in 1954, based on the powers conferred by Article 370. So, it wasn't introduced with Article 370, but under it. - Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 35A was a special provision regarding the rights of permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir, not a Directive Principle of State Policy (which are listed in Part IV of the Constitution). - Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 32 of the Constitution deals with the right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Article 35A had no direct relation to Article 32. 68. Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in 2019?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2021 · HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2021

    1. Articles 15(1) & 16(1)
    2. Articles 15(2) & 16(2)
    3. Articles 15(4) & 16(4)
    4. Articles 15(6) & 16(6)
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Articles 15(6) & 16(6)

    The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 introduced the provision for reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public employment. This was achieved by inserting clause (6) into Article 15, enabling the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens, including reservations up to 10% in educational institutions. Simultaneously, clause (6) was also inserted into Article 16, enabling the state to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts up to 10% in favour of any economically weaker sections of citizens, in addition to existing reservations.

  5. Consider the following statements regarding Article 371: Statement 1 : Establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra or, Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat under Article 371 Statement 2 : Equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas, subject to the requirements of the State as a whole.

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2022

    1. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct and State‐ ment 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
    2. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but State‐ ment 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
    3. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incor‐ rect
    4. Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is cor‐ rect
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but State‐ ment 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1

    - Article 371(2) of the Constitution contains special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. - Statement 1: Establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra or, Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat under Article 371. Article 371(2)(a) explicitly provides for the establishment of such development boards by order of the President. Thus, statement 1 is correct. - Statement 2: Equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas, subject to the requirements of the State as a whole. Article 371(2)(b) explicitly provides for equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over these areas. Thus, statement 2 is correct. - Both statements are factually correct provisions found in Article 371(2). - Now consider if Statement 2 explains Statement 1. Statement 1 is about establishing boards. Statement 2 is about allocating funds equitably. The boards are established for the purpose of ensuring, among other things, the equitable allocation of funds and promoting balanced development. So, Statement 2 describes one of the objectives or functions related to the special provisions, which the boards established under Statement 1 are meant to help achieve. Statement 2 doesn't explain why the boards are established (the underlying reason is regional imbalance), but rather what the boards or the overall special provision aims to achieve regarding resource allocation. Therefore, Statement 2 is not a direct explanation for the establishment of the boards in Statement 1. They are related provisions addressing the same goal of balanced regional development, but one does not logically explain the other's existence.

  6. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options. List-I (Constitution List-II (Area of reserva‐ Articles) tions)

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2020

    1. Article 15 (4) and 1. Lok Sabha Seats 16 (4)
    2. Article 15 (6) and 2. Panchayati Raj Institu‐ 16 (6) tions 3. Other Backward
    3. Article 243 D Classes (OBCs) A. A-2, B-4, C-1 B. A-3, B-2, C-1 C. A-3, B-2, C-4
    4. A-3, B-4, C-1
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 15 (6) and 2. Panchayati Raj Institu‐ 16 (6) tions 3. Other Backward

    - Article 15(4) and 16(4): Enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens (SEBCs) or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, including reservations in educational institutions and public employment. This is directly related to reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs), which are included within SEBCs. Thus, A maps to 3 (Other Backward Classes (OBCs)). - Article 243D: Provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat and reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women in Panchayats. Thus, C maps to 2 (Panchayati Raj Institutions). - Article 15(6) and 16(6): Added by the 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, they provide for reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). This is not listed as option 1, 2, or 3 in List-II.

Articles Pertaining to Citizenship

  1. Articles 5 - 11 of the Indian Constitution deals with

    Asked in: APPSC Group II Prelims 2018

    1. Fundamental Rights
    2. Union and its Territory
    3. Citizenship
    4. Fundamental Duties
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Citizenship

    These articles define who is a citizen of India at the commencement of the Constitution (Article 5), the rights of migrants from Pakistan (Articles 6 & 7), the rights of persons of Indian origin residing outside India (Article 8), situations where a person voluntarily acquires citizenship of a foreign state (Article 9), continuance of citizenship rights (Article 10), and the power of Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law (Article 11).

  2. Which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act, 2005 the 'Obligations of Public Authorities' is mentioned?

    Asked in: Asst. Director (Sci. and Tech. Dept.) 2024

    1. 4
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 1
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 4

    - The Right to Information Act, 2005, is a crucial piece of legislation for transparency and accountability in governance. - Section 4 of the Act is pivotal as it outlines the proactive disclosure obligations of public authorities, aiming to reduce the need for individuals to file information requests.

  3. Public Information Portal-2019 of Rajasthan is the first such effort of its kind in which schemes implemented by the Government in the ward/panchayat is being made available at one place. It implements which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

    Asked in: Asst. Director (Sci. and Tech. Dept.) 2024

    1. Section 3
    2. Section 6(2)
    3. Section 4(2)
    4. Section 5(1)
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Section 4(2)

    - This question connects a specific government initiative (Public Information Portal) to a section of the RTI Act. - Section 4(2) emphasizes the proactive disclosure of information in electronic form, which aligns with the purpose of a Public Information Portal.

  4. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have come into force on 26th November, 1949 ? (A) Article 6 (B) Article 7 (C) Article 367 (D) Article 324 Choose the correct answer : - Question not attempted

    Asked in: Asst. Engineer Comb. Comp. Exam (Pre) 2024

    1. Only (A), (B) and (D) are correct.
    2. Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
    3. Only (B) and (D) are correct.
    4. (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

    The question tests the understanding of which specific articles of the Indian Constitution were operational from the date of adoption, 26th November 1949.

  1. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2011

    1. Article 323
    2. Article 324
    3. Article 325
    4. Article 326
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 325

    The independence of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is crucial for ensuring fair and impartial recruitment to civil services. This independence is established through various constitutional provisions, primarily concerning the appointment, tenure, and removal of its members, ensuring they are free from political influence. While no single article explicitly states "independence of UPSC," the provisions within Articles 315-323 collectively establish its autonomy. Article 325, which prohibits discrimination in electoral rolls, upholds a principle of fairness and non-discrimination that aligns with the spirit of independent functioning expected of the UPSC in its selection processes.

  2. Which of the following Article provides for Constitution of GST (Goods and Services Tax) Council by the President of India ?

    Asked in: KPSC KAS Prelims 2017

    1. Article 246A
    2. Article 269A
    3. Article 279A
    4. Article 268A
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 279A

    Article 279A of the Indian Constitution specifically provides for the Constitution of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council by the President of India.

  3. Which is / are correct relating to the Tribunals? 1. Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with the Tribunals. 2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative tribunals and Article 323 B deals with the tribunals for other matters.

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2015

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

    - Tribunals are covered under Part XIV-A of the Constitution. - Article 323A deals with Administrative Tribunals. - Article 323B deals with Tribunals for other specific matters.

  4. Which Article consist of the provision relating to composition and its power and functions of the Election Commission of India?

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2014

    1. Article 324
    2. Article 356
    3. Article 370
    4. Article 243
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 324

    Article 324 vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and the State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission.

  5. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

    Asked in: UPPCS Prelims 2020

    1. Interstate Council - Article 263
    2. Finance Commission - Article 280
    3. Administrative Tribunal - Article 323A
    4. Union Public Service Commission - Article
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Union Public Service Commission - Article

    - Article 263 - Inter-State Council. - Article 280 - Finance Commission. - Article 323A - Administrative Tribunals. - Article 315 - Public Service Commissions for the Union and States. - All pairs seem correctly matched constitutionally.

  6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List - I List - II (A) Article – (1) National Commission for 324 Schedule Castes (B) Article – (2) Finance Commission 315 (C) Article – (3) Public Service Commission 280 (D) Article – (4) Election Commission 338 Code -

    Asked in: UPPCS Prelims 2023

    1. A-(1), B-(3), C-(4), D-(2)
    2. A-(3), B-(2), C-(4), D-(1)
    3. A-(3), B-(2), C-(1), D-(4)
    4. A-(4), B-(3), C-(2), D-(1)
    Show answer

    Answer: D. A-(4), B-(3), C-(2), D-(1)

    Article 324 of the Constitution of India deals with the Election Commission. Article 315 deals with Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States. Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission. Article 338 deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

  1. Match the articles related to State Legislature: (a) Constitution of legislature in (i) Article States 178 (b) The Speaker and Deputy Speaker (ii) Artof the Legislative Assembly icle 199 (iii) (c) Salaries and allowances of mem‐ Article bers 168 (iv) Art‐ (d) Definition of 'Money Bills' icle 195

    Asked in: CGPSC Prelims Exam 2021

    1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
    2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
    3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
    Show answer

    Answer: C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

    Key articles concerning State Legislatures include those on their constitution, presiding officers, powers and privileges, legislative procedure (including Money Bills), and remuneration of members.

  2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Advocate General of a State? 1. Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as Judge of a High Court to be Advocate- General for the State 2. Like Attorney General of India, Advocate General of a state can take part in the proceedings of state legislature without the right to vote. 3. Advocate-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the state legislature may determine.

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2022

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 2 only

    The Advocate-General is the highest law officer of a State, appointed by the Governor. His qualifications are similar to a High Court Judge. He has the right to participate in state legislature proceedings but cannot vote. His tenure is at the pleasure of the Governor, and his remuneration is determined by the Governor.

  3. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor has the power to promulgate ordinances during recess of Legislature?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. 155
    2. 156
    3. 212
    4. 213
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 213

    An ordinance promulgated by the Governor has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature but must be laid before the legislature when it reassembles and ceases to operate six weeks from the reassembly, or if a resolution disapproving it is passed earlier.

  4. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament of India to create or abolish Legislative Councils, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect ?

    Asked in: MPSC CS Prelims 2022

    1. Article 168
    2. Article 167
    3. Article 166
    4. Article 169
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Article 169

    Article 169 outlines the process for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a state. It states that Parliament may, by law, provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a state having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a state having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting).

  5. Which of the following statement is not included in Article 164 ?

    Asked in: MPSC CS Prelims 2023

    1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor
    2. The Council of Ministers shall not be collect‐ ively responsible to the State Legislature
    3. The other Minister shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
    4. A Minister who for any period of six consecut‐ ive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Council of Ministers shall not be collect‐ ively responsible to the State Legislature

    Article 164 lays down provisions regarding the appointment, tenure, responsibility, and other aspects of the Council of Ministers in a State. A key principle is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the State Legislative Assembly.

  6. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Advocate General in India? (1) The Advocate General is the highest Law Officer of the State (2) He is appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Justice of High Court (3) He should be eligible to be appointed as the Judge of a High Court (4) He/She should not be more than 65 years of age.

    Asked in: OPSC CS Prelims 2023

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 4

    The Advocate General is a constitutional office in the state, appointed by the Governor and holding office during the Governor's pleasure. Qualifications for the office are the same as those required to be a High Court Judge. The role is analogous to that of the Attorney General at the Union level.

  1. Judicial process in India is based on

    Asked in: BPSC Prelims Exam 67th Cancelled

    1. the Constitution
    2. the due process of routine law
    3. conventions
    4. the procedure established by law
    Show answer

    Answer: D. the procedure established by law

    The Indian Constitution, particularly Article 21, enshrines the principle of "procedure established by law" regarding life and personal liberty, which is a fundamental aspect of the judicial process.

  2. Evaluate the statements. 1. ARTICLE 268: Consolidated Funds and public accounts of India. (1) All revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all monies received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled “the Consolidated Fund of India”, (2) All other public moneys received by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State shall be credited to the public account of. (3) No moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India shall be appropriated except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in this Constitution. 2. ARTICLE 269: Contingency Fund. (1) Parliament may by law establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest to be entitled “the Contingency Fund of India” into which shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law, and the said Fund shall be placed at the disposal of the President to enable advances to be made by him out of such Fund for the purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by Parliament.

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2023

    1. only 1 is correct
    2. only 2 is correct
    3. both (1) and (2) are correct
    4. both (1) and (2) are not correct
    Show answer

    Answer: D. both (1) and (2) are not correct

    - Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 268 deals with "Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States". The description provided in statement 1 corresponds to Article 266, which deals with the Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts of India and the States. - Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 269 deals with "Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States". The description provided in statement 2 corresponds to Article 267, which deals with the Contingency Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of a State.

  3. Under the Constitution of India, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in :

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2011

    1. The District Courts
    2. The High Courts only
    3. The Supreme Court only
    4. Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court

    Article 32 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs, including Habeas Corpus, for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs, including Habeas Corpus, not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose (i.e., enforcement of any other legal right). This concurrent jurisdiction ensures a wider reach for the protection of personal liberty against unlawful detention.

  4. Article 236(a) "...District Judge..."

    Asked in: KPSC KAS Prelims 2017

    1. A, C, D
    2. A, B, D
    3. B, C, D
    4. All of these
    Show answer

    Answer: D. All of these

    Article 236(a) of the Constitution defines the term "district judge" expansively to include various judicial and magisterial positions at the district level, ensuring a broad scope for the provisions relating to the control over subordinate courts by the High Court.

  5. According to Article 236(a) of the Indian Constitution, the expression “District Judge” includes: A. Judge of a city civil court, Additional district judge, Joint district judge, Assistant district judge B. Chief judge of a small cause court C. Chief presidency magistrate, Additional chief presidency magistrate D. Sessions judge, Additional sessions judge and Assistant sessions judge Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Asked in: KPSC KAS Prelims 2017

    1. A, C and D
    2. A, B and D
    3. B and C only
    4. All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: D. All of the above

    Article 236(a) provides a comprehensive definition of "district judge" for the purpose of applying the constitutional provisions related to the judiciary, specifically Articles 233, 234, and 235, which concern the appointment and control of the subordinate judiciary.

  6. According to the provision of which Article of the Constitution can the President of India ask for advice from the Supreme Court ?

    Asked in: MPSC CS Prelims 2022

    1. Article 142
    2. Article 145
    3. Article 147
    4. Article 143
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Article 143

    Article 143 confers upon the President the power to consult the Supreme Court on two categories of matters: 1. On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or is likely to arise. In this case, the Supreme Court may tender its opinion.

  1. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2011

    1. Rajya Sabha
    2. Lok Sabha
    3. Legislative Council
    4. District Council
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Rajya Sabha

    Article 80 deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha.

  2. The conditions of President's office to laid down in Article

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2001

    1. 57 of the Constitution
    2. 58 of the Constitution
    3. 59 of the Constitution
    4. 60 of the Constitution
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 59 of the Constitution

    Article 59 specifies that the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the Legislature of any State, shall not hold any other office of profit, and outlines the entitlements, allowances, and privileges of the President.

  3. The power to nominet 12 members to the Rajya Sabha is laid down in ARticle

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2001

    1. 79 of the Constitution
    2. 80 of the Constitution
    3. 81 of teh Constitution
    4. 82 of the Constitution
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 80 of the Constitution

    Article 80(1)(a) states that the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) shall consist of twelve members nominated by the President. Article 80(3) specifies that these members are nominated from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art, and social service.

  4. Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with

    Asked in: BPSC Prelims Exam 67th Cancelled

    1. suits and proceedings
    2. government contracts
    3. Attorney General
    4. restrictions on trade and commerce
    Show answer

    Answer: A. suits and proceedings

    Article 300 of the Indian Constitution provides for the legal personality of the Union and the States and lays down the procedure for suits and proceedings by or against the Government.

  5. Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/ her mother tongue?

    Asked in: BPSC Prelims Exam 69th

    1. Article 110 (1)
    2. Article 122 (2)
    3. Article 120 (1)
    4. Both (A) and (B)
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Article 120 (1)

    - Article 120(1) grants the presiding officers (Speaker/Chairman) the discretion to allow a member to speak in their mother tongue if they cannot adequately express themselves in Hindi or English. - Article 110 (1) defines a Money Bill. - Article 122 (2) states that no officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested by or under the Constitution for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order, in Parliament shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers.

  6. Which one of the following is not a provision related to a Money Bill ?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 1 2022

    1. Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
    2. Appropriation of moneys out of the Consolid‐ ated Fund of India
    3. Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose
    4. Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose

    A Money Bill deals specifically with matters listed in Article 110(1), primarily related to government finance, taxation, and the Consolidated/ Contingency Funds of India.

Directive Principles of State Policy Articles

  1. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I (I) Formation of Village Panchayat (II) Uniform Civil Code (III) Agriculture and Animal Husbandry (IV) Separation of Judiciary from Executive List-II (1) Article 50 (2) Article 48 (3) Article 40 (4) Article 44 Codes : (I) (II) (III) (IV) (A) (3) (4) (2) (1) (B) (4) (3) (2) (1) (C) (2) (3) (1) (4) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4)

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2018

    1. (3) (4) (2) (1)
    2. (4) (3) (2) (1)
    3. (2) (3) (1) (4)
    4. (1) (2) (3) (4)
    Show answer

    Answer: A. (3) (4) (2) (1)

    These articles are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. Article 40 directs the state to organize village panchayats. Article 44 mandates the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens. Article 48 relates to the organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. Article 50 calls for the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.

  2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II (I) Formation of Village Panchayat (1) Article 50 (2) Article (II) Uniform Civil Code 48 (III) Agriculture and Animal Hus‐ (3) Article bandry 40 (IV) Separation of Judiciary from (4) Article Executive 44 Code : (I) (II) (III) (IV)

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2018

    1. (3) (4) (2) (1)
    2. (4) (3) (2) (1)
    3. (2) (3) (1) (4)
    4. (1) (2) (3) (4)
    Show answer

    Answer: A. (3) (4) (2) (1)

    These are Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 40 is for Panchayats, Article 44 for UCC, Article 48 for agriculture and animal husbandry, and Article 50 for separating judiciary from the executive.

  3. The Judiciary was separated from the Executive under which article

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2019

    1. Article 50
    2. Article 64
    3. Article 60
    4. Article 51
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 50

    This article aims to ensure the independence of the judiciary by preventing the executive from exercising judicial functions.

  4. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Subject) - (Related Articles)

    Asked in: UPPCS Prelims 2021

    1. The separation of judiciary from executive - Article 50
    2. The promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes - Article 46
    3. The promotion of Co-operative Societies - Article 43A
    4. The organisation of Village Panchayats and enable them to function as the units of self government - Article 40
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The promotion of Co-operative Societies - Article 43A

    Article 50 relates to the separation of judiciary from the executive. Article 46 relates to the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections. Article 40 relates to the organisation of Village Panchayats. Article 43A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, relates to the participation of workers in the management of industries. The promotion of Co-operative Societies is dealt with under Article 43B, which was inserted by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011.

  5. Which of the following Provision is a part of both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties?

    Asked in: UPPCS Prelims 2023

    1. Participation of workers in management of in‐ dustries
    2. Protection of environment
    3. Guardians to provide opportunity for education to children
    4. Uniform Civil Code
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Protection of environment

    Article 48A of the DPSP states that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Article 51A(g) of the Fundamental Duties states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. Both articles relate to the protection and improvement of the environment.

  6. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State ?

    Asked in: UPSC Combined Section Officer 2024

    1. Article 50
    2. Article 52
    3. Article 58
    4. Article 60
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 50

    Article 50 is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). It aims at securing the independence of the judiciary from executive control, which is considered essential for the impartial administration of justice.

Fundamental Duties Articles

  1. The article that states the role of scientific temper is

    Asked in: TNPSC CS Prelims 2024

    1. Article 35 A
    2. Article 51 A
    3. Article 32
    4. Article 14 A
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Article 51 A

    Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution lists the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India. Specifically, Article 51 A (h) states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India 'to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform'.

Fundamental Rights Articles

  1. Due to the existence of which article, the State cannot interfere and dispossess a person's property except in accordance with the procedure established by law ?

    Asked in: APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2018 · APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2018

    1. Article 300
    2. Article 330A
    3. Article 299
    4. Article 299A
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 300

    Article 300A is the provision that protects an individual's property from arbitrary dispossession by the State, ensuring that it is done only through a procedure established by law.

  2. The Constitution confers which of the following Articles that denies the rights to aliens (Foreign Citizens)? I. Articles 29 and 30 II. Article 19 III. Articles 23 and 24 IV. Article 16 Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

    Asked in: APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2023

    1. II and III only
    2. I, II and IV only
    3. III and IV only
    4. All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: B. I, II and IV only

    Certain Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution are available only to citizens, while others are available to all persons (citizens and foreigners). The question asks for articles that deny these rights to aliens, meaning these rights are exclusively for citizens. - Articles available only to citizens: 15, 16, 19, 29, 30. - Articles available to all persons: 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28. Let's examine the given options: I. Articles 29 and 30: Protection of interests of minorities (29) and Right of minorities to establish educational institutions (30) are available only to citizens. II. Article 19: Protection of six rights regarding freedom (speech, assembly, etc.) is available only to citizens. III. Articles 23 and 24: Right against exploitation (Prohibition of traffic in human beings, forced labour - 23; Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. - 24) is available to all persons. IV. Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is available only to citizens. Therefore, the rights under Articles 16, 19, 29, and 30 are denied to aliens (foreign citizens). This corresponds to I, II, and IV.

  3. Equality before law and equal protection of law is dealt with the Article

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2001

    1. 13 of the Constitution
    2. 14 of the Constitution
    3. 15 of the Constitution
    4. 16 of the Constitution
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 14 of the Constitution

    - Article 14 prohibits discrimination. - It applies to all persons, including citizens and foreigners. - 'Equality before Law' is a negative concept borrowed from the British system, meaning no person is above the law. - 'Equal Protection of Laws' is a positive concept borrowed from the American system, meaning equal treatment under equal circumstances.

  4. Equal opportunity in matters of public employment is guaranteed under Article

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2020

    1. 14
    2. 15
    3. 16
    4. 17
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 16

    - Article 14 deals with Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. - Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. - Article 17 abolishes Untouchability.

  5. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution enables the State to make provision for reservation in public employment in favour of backward classes?

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2022

    1. 16(1)
    2. 16(2)
    3. 16(3)
    4. 16(4)
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 16(4)

    Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Clause (4) of Article 16 specifically enables the State to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.

  6. Under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of eleven years. Every religious denomination has got absolute power under Article 26 of the Constitution of India to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. Only religious and linguistic minorities find mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. Parliament cannot empower, even by law, any court other than the Supreme Court of India the power to issue writs within local limits of its jurisdiction. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2022

    1. Under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of eleven years.
    2. Every religious denomination has got absolute power under Article 26 of the Constitution of India to manage its own affairs in matters of reli‐ gion.
    3. Only religious and linguistic minorities find mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.
    4. Parliament cannot empower, even by law, any court other than the Supreme Court of India the power to issue writs within local limits of its jur‐ isdiction.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Only religious and linguistic minorities find mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.

    Let's examine why other statements are incorrect: A) Article 21A provides for free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of six and fourteen years, not up to eleven years. B) Article 26 grants religious denominations rights to manage their affairs in matters of religion, but these rights are subject to public order, morality, and health, so the power is not absolute. D) This statement is incorrect; the Constitution itself, under Article 226, empowers High Courts (courts other than the Supreme Court) to issue writs within their territorial jurisdiction. Furthermore, Parliament can empower other courts to exercise writ powers for certain purposes (though the scope is typically limited compared to Article 32 and 226).

Structure and Organization of Articles (Parts, Chapters, Schedules)

  1. Article 1(1) of Indian Constitution says

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2017

    1. We the people of India having solemnly re‐ solved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic republic
    2. India, that is Bharat, Shall be a union of states
    3. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
    4. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law
    Show answer

    Answer: B. India, that is Bharat, Shall be a union of states

    This fundamental article establishes the name of the country and specifies its nature as a union rather than a federation of states that have come together by agreement.

  2. Which of the following feature(s) is(are) included in the fundamental structure of the Indian Constitution? 1. Judicial Review 2. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court 3. Federal Character 4. Free and Fair elections

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2018

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 3 and 4
    3. Only 1 and 4
    4. Only 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Only 1, 2 and 3

    Key features commonly considered part of the Basic Structure include Supremacy of the Constitution, Federalism, Judicial Review, Secularism, Democracy, Republic character, Separation of Powers, and Free and Fair Elections. Specific powers of the Supreme Court (like Art 136) are also often included under the umbrella of independent judiciary and effective access to justice.

  3. Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India?

    Asked in: UPSC NDA 2 2021

    1. To ensure participation of good people in politics
    2. To guarantee a set of rights to citizens
    3. To define the power of the different organs of government
    4. To create conditions for a just society
    Show answer

    Answer: A. To ensure participation of good people in politics

    The Constitution of India performs several functions essential for a democratic state. It lays down the basic structure of the government, defines the powers and functions of its organs (legislature, executive, judiciary), guarantees fundamental rights to citizens, sets goals for the welfare state (DPSPs), and provides the framework for governance to achieve a just society. However, while the Constitution provides the mechanism for political participation (e.g., electoral process), it cannot ensure that only people with certain moral qualities ("good people") enter politics. This is influenced by societal factors, political processes, and individual choices, not directly guaranteed by the constitutional framework itself.

  4. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India ?

    Asked in: UPSC NDA 2 2021

    1. It provides a set of basic rules.
    2. It specifies the power of the Government.
    3. It is the supreme law of the land.
    4. It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

    - The Constitution of India is the supreme law. - It lays down the basic structure and rules of the political system. - It defines the powers and functions of the different branches of government. - Judicial review is a feature, but it operates within the framework of constitutional supremacy.

  5. In the Constitution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in

    Asked in: UPSC CAPF 2011

    1. the Preamble
    2. Part III
    3. Article 368
    4. nowhere
    Show answer

    Answer: D. nowhere

    The Constitution of India describes India as a "Union of States" in Article 1. Although the Indian political system exhibits features of both federal and unitary governments (often described as quasi-federal), the term "Federal" is not explicitly used in the text of the Constitution.

  6. Which Article of the Constitution of India defines the name and the territory of India?

    Asked in: WBPSC CS Prelims 2016

    1. Article 1
    2. Article 2
    3. Article 3
    4. Article 4
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Article 1

    Article 1(1) states that "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States." Article 1(2) specifies that the States and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule. Article 1(3) lists the territories of India, including the territories of the States, the Union Territories, and any territories that may be acquired.