The Parliamentary Act is part of Indian Polity and Governance. Below are notes on 10 sub-topics, followed by practice MCQs from State PSC and UPSC papers.

Anti-defection Law (Tenth Schedule)

Enactment: Added to the Constitution by the 1. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule: Contained in the Tenth Schedule of 2. the Constitution. Purpose: To prevent political defections by 3. legislators (MPs and MLAs) from one party to another. Grounds for Disqualification: 4.

    • Voluntarily giving up membership of the political party.
    • Voting or abstaining from voting in the House contrary to any direction (whip) issued by the political party, without prior permission, and such act not being condoned by the party within 15 days.
    • An independent member joining any political party after election.
    • A nominated member joining any political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking his seat in the House. Exceptions to Disqualification: 5.
    • Merger: If a political party merges with another political party, and not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger. (This action is not covered for disqualification under the law).
    • A person elected as Speaker/Chairman can resign from their party and rejoin after demitting the office. Deciding Authority: The Presiding Officer of 6. the House (Speaker in Lok Sabha/Assembly, Chairman in Rajya Sabha/Council). Judicial Review: The decision of the Presid7. ing Officer is subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan case, 1992). 91st Amendment Act, 2003: 8.
    • Removed the "split" provision (where defection by one-third members of a party was allowed without disqualification).
    • Disqualified defectors are debarred from holding any remunerative political post (including ministerial positions) until they are re-elected.

Budgetary Process and Financial Control by Parliament

  • Along with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), the Finance Minister presents other documents mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003.
  • These FRBM-mandated documents include: Macro Economic Framework Statement, Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, and Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.
  • Vote on Account (Article 116): A special provision allowing the government to obtain an advance grant from Parliament to meet its expenditure for a short period (usually two months) during the new financial year, pending the enactment of the Appropriation Bill.
  • Vote on Account is passed by Lok Sabha and deals only with expenditure, not receipts or taxes.
  • Its purpose is to enable the government to carry on its normal activities until the regular Budget is passed.

Composition of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha)

  • Indian Parliament: Bicameral (President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha) as per Article 79 of the Constitution.
  • Lok Sabha (House of People): Maximum 550 members (530 from States, 20 from Union Territories); members are directly elected from territorial constituencies based on universal adult franchise.
  • Rajya Sabha (Council of States): Maximum 250 members (238 indirectly elected by State and Union Territory Legislative Assemblies via proportional representation using single transferable vote; 12 members nominated by the President for their expertise in Art, Science, Literature, or Social Service).
  • Westminster Model: Adopted in the Indian Constitution, signifying a Parliamentary System of government where the Executive is collectively responsible to the Legislature.
  • Floating Constituencies: Electoral constituencies that do not have fixed geographical borders.
  • Sangha Constituency (Sikkim): A unique constituency under Article 371F(f) of the Constitution, where only Buddhist monks are eligible to contest and vote.
  • CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983: Revised designations for Central Industrial Security Force personnel:
    • Security Guard → Constable
    • Security Officer → Assistant Commandant
    • Head Security Guard → Head Constable
    • Senior Security Guard → Naik

Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings (Questions, Zero Hour, Adjournment Motion, No-Confidence Motion)

  • Question Hour: First hour of every parliamentary sitting in both Houses; members ask questions to Ministers (or Private Members on Bills/Resolutions).
  • Starred Question: Requires oral answer; supplementary questions allowed; identified by an asterisk ().
  • Unstarred Question: Requires written answer; no supplementary questions allowed.
  • Short Notice Question: For matters of urgent public importance; oral answer; notice period less than 10 days.
  • Zero Hour: Indian parliamentary innovation, not mentioned in Rules of Procedure. Follows Question Hour; members raise urgent matters without prior notice.
  • Adjournment Motion: Moved to draw attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance; involves an element of censure against the government.
  • Adjournment Motion: Requires support of 50 members for admission; only admissible in Lok Sabha. If admitted, normal business is suspended for discussion.
  • No-Confidence Motion: Moved to ascertain the confidence of the Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers (Article 75).
  • No-Confidence Motion: Requires support of 50 members for admission; only admissible in Lok Sabha. If passed, the Council of Ministers must resign.

Legislative Procedures (Ordinary, Money, Financial, Constitutional Amendment Bills)

  • Disaster Management Act enacted in 2005.
  • GST rates changes can be effected by Government through notification, subject to ceiling fixed under GST Act.
  • Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) is not in force in India.
  • Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:
    • Recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes occupying forest land before October 25, 1980.
    • Implementation of the Act lies with State / UT Governments.
    • Seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
  • Administrative Tribunals:
    • Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals at Union and State levels.
    • Tribunals address disputes and complaints regarding recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
    • Law establishing Tribunals cannot exclude jurisdiction of all Courts for special leave to appeal.
    • Law establishing Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence.
  • Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
    • Provides civil remedies to protect women subjected to domestic violence.
    • Only women can make a complaint under this legislation.
    • Relief can be sought against the husband or a male live-in partner, but not only them (other adult male relatives may be included, and in some cases female relatives if they commit domestic violence).
    • Includes wives and women in marriage-like relationships.
  • The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, incorporated provisions of Central Labour Acts such as the Factories Act, 1948 and Plantations Labour Act, 1951.
  • Indian Maritime University (IMU) was established through an Act of Parliament as a Central University, is located in Chennai, and aims to extend knowledge/skill benefits for individual/societal development. It was not primarily established to support the Indian Navy.
  • Information Technology Act, 2000:
    • Electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as handwritten signature.
    • Both Central and State Governments have power to make rules with respect to electronic signature.
  • Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.
  • The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 has become an Act.
  • Consumer Protection Bill 2019:
    • Replaced the Consumer Protection Act 1986.
    • Defined 6 consumer rights, including the right to be protected against marketing of hazardous goods/services.
    • Central Government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA).
    • CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or endorser for false advertisement: up to Rs. 10 lakh for first offence (up to Rs. 50 lakh for subsequent offences) and imprisonment up to 2 years for first offence (up to 5 years for subsequent offences).
  • Inter-State River Dispute Tribunal Bill 2019 proposes:
    • Central Government to set up Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC).
    • A single, permanent Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal, which can have multiple benches.
    • Tribunal to comprise Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and not more than six nominated members.
  • National Human Rights Commission (Amendment) Bill 2019:
    • A former Supreme Court judge can be made the chairperson of the NHRC.
    • Reduces the office term of chairperson and members of NHRC and SHRC to 3 years from the current 5 years.
  • Code on Wages Bill, 2019:
    • Wages include salary, allowance, or any other component expressed in monetary terms.
    • Minimum wages will be notified by the Central or State governments.
    • Minimum wages will be revised and reviewed by the Central or State governments at an interval of not more than 5 years.
    • The wage period (daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly) is fixed by the employer.
  • Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019:
    • Includes contracting a 'close relative' as a surrogate by a heterosexual married couple who have been childless.
    • Intending couple should have a 'certificate of essentiality' and a 'certificate of eligibility'.
    • Couple should be Indian citizens, married for at least 5 years, with woman's age between 23-50 years and man's age between 26-55 years.
  • Amendments to public sector banks involve the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970 and 1980.
  • Essential Commodities Act:
    • First passed in 1955; amended by Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act 2020.
    • In March 2020, masks and hand sanitizers were brought under this Act.
    • Purpose is to check hoarding and black marketing.
    • Government can fix Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of any packed product declared as an essential commodity.
  • Under Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, the noise range for horns is fixed between 93-112 dB.
  • Border Security Force (BSF) powers:
    • BSF officers have power of seizure, search, and arrest up to 50 km in border states like Assam, West Bengal, Punjab (extended from 15km).
    • These actions can be taken under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
    • They have powers of search, seizure, and arrest in Assam, West Bengal, Punjab, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, and Ladakh.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar drafted the Hindu Code Bill as the first Law Minister of India.
  • Right to Information Act:
    • Came into force on 12 October 2005.
    • Replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
  • The Emigration Bill 2019 replaced the Emigration Act, 1983.
  • Protection of women from Domestic Violence is a Legal Right.
  • Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 applies to agricultural, natural and manufactured goods (not services). For a product to get GI tag, goods need to be produced, processed, or prepared in that region.
  • Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, 'economic boycott' is defined in Section 2(b c).
  • Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, 'anticipatory bail' is prohibited by Section 18.
  • Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995, 'Material for Annual Report' is provided in Section 22.
  • Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, a non-SC/ST person causing physical harm or mental agony to an SC/ST member on allegation of practising witchcraft is punishable with imprisonment for a term of not less than six months but which may extend to five years and with fine.
  • Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018:
    • Makes giving of bribes an offence.
    • Amends various provisions of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
    • Incorporates recommendations of the 21st Law Commission.
    • Brings anti-corruption law in line with UN Convention Against Corruption by making citizens liable for offering a bribe.
  • Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA):
    • Passed in 2016.
    • Aims at protecting interests of home buyers.
    • Was not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir before 2019.
  • Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was related to homosexuality (decriminalized in 2018).
  • RTI Act came into force in 2005.
  • Parliament has power to modify provisions of the Constitution by simple majority for:
    • Alteration of names, boundaries and areas of States.
    • Appointment of Additional Judges.
    • Abolition of second chamber of State Legislature.
    • Administration of Scheduled Areas.
  • New Criminal Laws (2023):
    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita was passed by the parliament in December 2023, and came into effect from July 1, 2024.
    • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure.
    • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into effect from July 1, 2024.
  • Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013:
    • Mandatory to carry out Social Impact Assessment Study in consultation with Panchayat/Municipality/Municipal Corporation.
    • Social Impact Assessment Study should be completed within six months from its commencement.
    • Public hearing to ascertain views of affected families for Social Impact Assessment is mandatory.
    • There are exemptions from undertaking Social Impact Assessment Study when land is acquired under urgency clause for certain projects.
  • The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020:
    • Seeks to amend The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
    • Sets up State level Medical Boards to decide if a pregnancy may be terminated after 24 weeks in case of substantial foetal abnormalities.
    • Survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (differently abled, minors) can opt for abortion up to 24 weeks on the advice of two doctors.
  • The Land Acquisition Bill was passed by Lok Sabha with 10 amendments (referring to the 2015 version).
  • Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005 mentions: Transparency of Information, Revelation of Information, Informed Citizenry, and highlights the paramountcy of the democratic ideal.
  • Laws and Years: List – II List – I (Laws) (Years) The Banking Companies Or1980 dinance Special Bearers Bonds Ordin1981 ance Unlawful activities Prevention 1966 ordinance Terrorist affected areas ordin1984 ance
  • The Protection of Civil Rights Act came into force on 19th November 1976.
  • Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 provides for the appointment of Dowry Prohibition Officers.
  • Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2022 provides for the establishment of Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya, focusing on high quality teaching, research and skill development in disciplines related to transportation, technology and management.
  • Administrative Tribunals Act was passed in 1985 and includes both Central Administrative Tribunals and State Administrative Tribunals.
  • National Disaster Management Act, 2005:
    • Enacted in 2005.
    • National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the Prime Minister.
    • State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister.
  • Acts and Years: Act Year The SCs and STs (Prevention of 1989 Atrocities) Act National Commission for Safai 1993 Karamcharis Act Child Labour (Prohibition of 1986 Regulation) Act Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016
  • The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) came into force in India in 2005 (enacted in 2002).
  • Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act):
    • Provides for right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school.
    • Prohibits deployment of teachers for non-educational works, other than decennial census, elections to local authority/State Legislatures/Parliament, and disaster relief.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011 mandate on main label for pre-packaged items: List of ingredients (including additives), Nutrition information, Vegetarian/non-vegetarian symbol. (Recommendations by medical profession are not a standard mandatory label item).
  • Gram Nyayalaya Act:
    • Gram Nyayalayas can hear both civil and criminal cases.
    • Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
  • District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) protect the interests of persons affected by mining operations.
  • Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act):
    • Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
    • The Act provides for three authorities for investigations and an appellate tribunal.
  • It is legally mandatory for Service providers, Data centres, and Body corporate to report cyber security incidents in India.
  • Right to Education (RTE) Act: For teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE) guidelines.
  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. FSSAI is an independent statutory body under the charge of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • Indian Patents Act:
    • A biological process to create a seed cannot be patented in India.
    • Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
  • Section 18A was added to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 vide its 2018 amendment.
  • Under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, any authority or officer conducting vexatious search without reasons recorded in writing is liable for punishment of imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹ 50,000 or both.
  • In cases triable by special judges under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, the trial should ordinarily be concluded within 2 years in aggregate.
  • The Prevention of Corruption Act is based on Sections 161 to 165A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
  • Under Section 94 of CrPC, 1973, objectionable articles not covered for search include obscene objects.
  • The Atomic Energy (Amendment) Bill, 2015 amended the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
  • Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code dealt with adultery.
  • PCMA (2006) is the abbreviated version of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act.
  • The Government of India passed the Protection of Human Rights Act in 1993.
  • The "Unorganized Workers Social Security Act" was passed in 2008.
  • Right to Information Act was passed in the year 2005.
  • Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was first enacted in 1954.
  • The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of Parliament.
  • Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules is a civil offence. FERA was replaced by FEMA in 1999 and had a sunset clause till 31st May 2002.
  • The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 sought to replace the Indian Electricity Act, 1910, the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948, and the Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998.
  • Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai; National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali; Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram; and Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior are Institutes of National Importance.
  • Himachal Pradesh (in 1996) passed legislation making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory.
  • The Prasar Bharati Act came into existence on 15th September 1997.
  • The motive of the RTI Act is to get information from public officers, for officers to provide information, for government to put information on public places, and generally promoting transparency and accountability.
  • As per the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, the FPO (Fruit Products Order) mark is made mandatory on all processed fruit products.
  • Under Section 81 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA) 1951, no election can be called in question except by an election petition. High Courts have original jurisdiction on deciding election petitions. An election petition must be filed within 45 days from the date of declaration of results.
  • A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of a factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called an Occupier.
  • The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014, Section 31 deals with the High Court.
  • A Bill cannot become an Act of Parliament unless the President of India gives his assent to the Bill.
  • Right to Information came into force on 12/10/2005.
  • In 2005, the Indian government enacted the Disaster Management Act.
  • The Waqf Amendment Bill introduced in April, 2025 (likely referring to the 2013 amendments) focused on enhancing transparency and ensuring better governance of Waqf properties.
  • Section 4 of the RTI Act states that public authorities must maintain records and publish information within 120 days from the enactment of the Act. Updating published information every month is not explicitly mentioned.
  • Section 8 (1) of the Right to Information Act 2005 states exemptions, but "Information that hampers the process of development of the State" is not one of the explicitly mentioned exemptions.
  • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) became effective from July 2020. The Act expands the definition of consumer to include individuals engaging in online purchases or services.
  • Section 16 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has been revised by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2019.
  • Section 10 of RTE Act 2009 states it is the duty of each parent and guardian to get admission of their wards in a nearby school for elementary education.
  • In the RTE Act 2009, Section 13 (not 14) prevents collection of capitation fee. Section 17 prevents punishment to children. Section 21 deals with School Management Committee. Section 28 deals with prevention of private tuition by teachers.
  • The Right to Information (RTI) was first introduced in the year 2005.
  • The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the RBI as per the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006.
  • The 'Right to Information Act' aims at promoting transparency in administration, promoting efficiency and accountability of administration, and containing corruption in administration.
  • Chronological order of a legislative process: Proposal -> Bill -> Act -> Law.
  • Copyright subsists after the death of an author for 60 years.
  • The term "Information" has been defined in the Right to Information Act, 2005 in Section 2(f).
  • A Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of 90 days.
  • Books and Accounts are generally not liable to be attached and sold in execution of a decree.
  • The Jammu & Kashmir Re-organisation Act – 1918 is not correctly matched; the Act was passed in 2019.
  • ‘Advocate's Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India in 2001.
  • ‘Right to Information’ is defined under Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
  • National and State Disaster Management Authority is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
  • Public Holidays are declared under the Negotiable Instruments Act.
  • The Sale of Goods Act – 1927 is not correctly matched; it was enacted in 1930.
  • Where any information sought under the Right to Information Act concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within 48 Hours of receipt of the request.
  • The Right to Information Act was a recently passed Act (in its time, 2005).
  • Bar Council of India is a statutory body constituted under The Advocates Act, 1961.
  • The S. Sunder Committee is related to revamping of the Motor Vehicles Act.
  • Sexual Harassment of Women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition & Redressal) Act, 2013 (often referred to as 2015):
    • Determination of compensation – Section 15.
    • Inquiry Report – Section 17.
    • Cognizance of offence by courts – Section 27.
    • Power to remove difficulties – Section 30.
  • Chronological order of Acts: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act (1971), The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act (1986), The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (2012), Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (2016).
  • For Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) of adult women, only the consent of the woman concerned is mandatory.
  • Under the rule of Section-4 of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971, pregnancy can be terminated at hospitals established/maintained by Government or places identified by a district-level committee.
  • The 'Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act' was passed in 1986, extends to the whole of India, and comes into force on such date as the Central Government may appoint.
  • Under the 'Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act 1986', for a second conviction, punishment is imprisonment for not less than 6 months to 5 years and fine not less than ₹ 10,000 to ₹ 1,00,000.
  • National Green Tribunal Act was passed in 2010.
  • Parliament has passed the National Food Security Act, 2013. The Supreme Court has held that it is the duty of the State to provide food to every needy.
  • The National Food Security Act was passed in the year 2013.
  • The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 was passed as an exception to Section 312, Indian Penal Code.
  • If an offence is committed by a juvenile under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019, the Parent/Guardian of such juvenile or the owner of the motor vehicle will be held liable or guilty.
  • Heavy passenger motor vehicle includes any public or private vehicle whose gross vehicle weight or unladen weight exceeds 12000 kilograms.
  • To apply for a driving license for a light motor vehicle, one must be at least 18 years old.
  • Any licensing authority may renew a driving license with effect from the date of expiry.
  • District Road Safety Committee(s):
    • The District Magistrate or Collector is the Ex-Officio Chairman.
    • Terms of reference and functions include periodic review of road accidents and development of a district road safety plan.
  • Not having car insurance is illegal, and a police officer can take action against the driver.
  • In a motor vehicle accident, besides the injured person, their wife and dependent father can file an application for compensation.
  • Section 161 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines a 'hit-and-run motor accident'.
  • Section 129 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to wearing a helmet when driving or riding on a motorcycle.
  • The Claims Tribunal in a motor vehicle accident has the power to take evidence on oath, enforce the attendance of witnesses, and compel the discovery and production of documents and material objects.
  • The Central Motor Vehicles (Fifth Amendment) Rules, 2022 mandate the investigating officer to intimate a motor vehicle accident to the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal within 48 hours of the accident.
  • The Detailed Accident Report (DAR) in case of motor vehicle accident shall be submitted before the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal by the investigating officer.
  • The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 salient features include safety on the roads, compensation for road accident victims, and definition of a good Samaritan (it increased, not decreased, penalties).
  • Speed limits are specific for different types of roads (e.g., highways, urban areas). Speeding can result in fines, suspension of license, or imprisonment. Severity of offence matters in deciding penalty.
  • Parking places and halting stations for motor vehicles shall be determined by the State Government or any authority authorized by it, in consultation with the local authority.
  • In sale of goods, an offer by the seller to take back the goods if they turn out not to be as stated indicates the statement was a Condition.
  • Director of Legal Metrology is appointed under Section 13 of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
  • As per Section 24 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, property in goods sent ‘on approval’ or ‘on sale or return’ does not pass until the buyer signifies acceptance, or keeps the goods beyond the fixed time or a reasonable period.
  • Section 55 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (Seller's suit for price) is pari materia to Section 39 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (refusal to perform contract).
  • Under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, penalty for non-compliance with orders of the Real Estate Appellate Tribunal by an allottee is imprisonment for up to 1 year or a fine up to 5% of the estimated project cost, or both.
  • Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016:
    • The salary and allowances payable to, and other terms and conditions of service of, the Chairperson and other Members shall not be varied to their disadvantage during their tenure.
    • The Chairperson and Members hold office for a term not exceeding five years or until they attain 65 years, whichever is earlier, and are eligible for reappointment.
    • The Authority consists of a Chairperson and not less than two whole-time members.
  • Electricity Act, 2003:
    • There shall be a Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) as a body corporate.
    • CERC has perpetual succession, a common seal, power to acquire/hold/ dispose property, contract, sue/be sued.
    • The head office of CERC is at a place specified by the Central Government.
    • The Chairperson and Members of CERC are appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006:
    • The Food Authority meets at its head office or any of its offices as the Chairperson directs.
    • If the Chairperson is absent, a nominated member or chosen member presides.
    • An aggrieved person may appeal to the High Court after 45 days, by depositing the penalty/compensation/damage.
    • An appeal preferred under this section shall be disposed of by the High Court by a bench of not less than two judges.
  • Sale of Goods Act, 1930:
    • Where buyer wrongfully neglects/refuses to accept/pay, seller can sue for damages for non-acceptance.
    • Where seller wrongfully neglects/refuses to deliver, buyer can sue for damages for non-delivery.
    • Court may direct specific performance in a suit for breach of contract to deliver specific/ascertained goods.
    • In anticipatory breach, the other party may treat the contract as subsisting or rescinded and sue for damages.
  • Insurance Act, 1938:
    • Every insurer is subject to the Act as long as liabilities in India remain unsatisfied or provided for.
    • Every application for registration must be in such manner and accompanied by such documents as specified by regulations.
    • Where the Authority (IRDAI) refuses registration, it records reasons and furnishes a copy to the applicant.
    • Any person aggrieved by the Authority's decision may appeal to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).
  • Even if the buyer sub-sells the goods, the right of stoppage in transit can be exercised by the unpaid seller Before delivery to the second buyer.
  • Where goods are put up for sale in lots during auction under Section 64 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, each lot is prima facie subject of a separate contract of sale.
  • Food Safety and Security Act 2006: Section 65 deals with compensation in case of injury or death of consumer. Section 61 deals with punishment for interfering with seized items.
  • Electricity Act, 2003: Sections 45, 46, 47 deal with power to recover charges, power to recover expenditure, and power to require connection respectively. Section 49 is not specifically titled "Additional terms".
  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
    • It amends the law related to sedition.
    • It introduces community services as a new form of punishment.
  • The Indian Contract Act is from 1872 (not 1870).
  • Under the Insurance Act, 1938, if the Authority does not accept the return, the court shall entertain the insurer's application if submitted before the expiry of four months from the date of the Authority's order.
  • Central Government may, with the consent of the State Government and subject to conditions, delegate powers of the Director of Metrology to the Controller of Legal Metrology in the State.
  • Person selling, possessing or otherwise disposing counterfeit seal for a second time shall be punished for a term not less than six months but which may extend to five years.
  • Section 5 of the Real Estate (Regulations and Development) Act, 2016 deals with Grant of registration of Real Estate projects.
  • Rights and duties of allottee under Real Estate (R & D) Act, 2016 are discussed in Section 19.
  • A person having possession or custody of a weight or measure intended to be used or likely to be used in any transaction is bound to get it verified before its use.
  • A wholesaler or distributor shall be liable for any article of food supplied if received by him with knowledge of being unsafe, or after the date of expiry or unsafe or misbranded, or if the manufacturer is unidentifiable.
  • Section 32 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 deals with Cognizance of offences under this Act.
  • Match List I (Rule/Principle) with List II (Section of Sale of Goods Act): List I (Laws) List II (Years) Rule of caveat Emptor Section 16 Quiet possession Section 14 Nemo dat Quod Non Habet Section 27 Unpaid seller's lien Section 47
  • For the purpose of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, centimeter is not a base unit of weights and measures for length (meter is the base unit).
  • Offences by Government Departments under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, are dealt with in Section 34-A.
  • The nominated and elected members of the Board under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, shall hold office for three years.
  • For the purposes of Chapter III of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, if a drug is imported under a name belonging to another drug, it is called a Spurious drug.
  • Special courts for trial of offences relating to adulterated and spurious drugs were set up by the Central or State Govt. under Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, by Section 36A.
  • An agreement to supply goods at a future date at a price not fixed by the current market is valid, as Section 6 of the Sales of Goods Act recognizes agreements effecting the present sale of future goods, and price can be determined by course of dealing or a reasonable price.
  • Section 25 of the Electricity Act, 2003, deals with State transmission utility and functions.
  • In India, passports are issued as per The Passports Act, 1967.
  • The Right to Education (RTE) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament on 4 August 2009.
  • The Prevention of Corruption Act was passed in 1947.
  • Section 61A was inserted in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to provide for Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) in elections.

Parliamentary Committees (Types, Functions, Role)

  • Definition & Purpose: Serve as 'miniature Parliaments'; perform detailed scrutiny of legislative, financial, and other matters; reduce Parliament's workload; provide expertise.
  • Constitutional Basis: Not directly mentioned, but Articles 105 (privileges) and 118 (rules of procedure) implicitly govern their functioning and powers.
  • Types:
    • Standing Committees: Permanent, continuous nature, constituted periodically (usually every year or for a fixed term).
      • Financial Committees:
      • Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Oldest (1921); 22 members (15 Lok Sabha, 7 Rajya Sabha); examines CAG reports on government expenditure post-facto.
      • Estimates Committee: 30 members (all Lok Sabha); examines budget estimates, suggests economies and administrative reforms; known as 'continuous economy committee'.
      • Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU): 22 members (15 Lok Sabha, 7 Rajya Sabha); examines reports and accounts of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and CAG reports on them.
      • Departmental Standing Committees (DSCs): 24 total (16 under Lok Sabha, 8 under Rajya Sabha); each has 31 members (21 LS, 10 RS); scrutinize bills, demand for grants, annual reports, and long-term policies of respective ministries.
      • Other Standing Committees:
      • Committees to Inquire: Committee on Petitions, Committee of Privileges, Ethics Committee.
      • Committees to Scrutinize & Control: Committee on Government Assurances, Committee on Subordinate Legislation, Committee on Welfare of SCs & STs, Committee on Empowerment of Women.
      • Committees Relating to Day-to-Day Business: Business Advisory Committee, Rules Committee, General Purpose Committee.
    • Ad Hoc Committees: Temporary, cease to exist after completing the assigned task and submitting their report.
      • Inquiry Committees: Appointed to inquire into specific events or issues (e.g., Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) on scams).
      • Advisory Committees on Bills: Select Committee or Joint Committee on a particular bill, formed to examine the bill in detail.
  • Functions & Role (Overall):
    • Detailed Scrutiny: Conduct in-depth examination of bills, budgetary proposals, and policy matters, which the full Parliament lacks time for.
    • Accountability: Help hold the executive accountable to Parliament through review of administration and expenditure.
    • Expertise: Allow for specialized study and input from members with relevant knowledge or interest.
    • Consensus Building: Often work in a non-partisan manner, fostering consensus on complex issues.
    • Legislative Oversight: Ensure executive actions are in line with parliamentary intent and constitutional provisions.
    • Continuity: Provide continuous oversight even when Parliament is not in session.
  • Appointment & Tenure: Members are appointed/elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. Tenure is typically one year for Standing Committees. Proportional representation of parties is usually ensured.

Parliamentary Privileges and Immunities

  • Constitutional Basis & Source: Parliamentary privileges are enshrined in Articles 105 (Parliament) and 194 (State Legislatures) of the Indian Constitution.
  • Origin: Originally, under Art. 105(3), these privileges were those of the British House of Commons as of Jan 26, 1950. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, removed the explicit reference to the House of Commons, stating they are those which existed immediately before the coming into force of Section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.
  • Types: Privileges are of two types: Collective (enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively) and Individual (enjoyed by members individually).
  • Beneficiaries: Extended to:
    • Members of Parliament.
    • Persons entitled to speak and take part in proceedings (e.g., Attorney General of India, Ministers).
  • Collective Privileges (of the House):
    • Right to publish reports, debates, and proceedings; also to prohibit others from publishing.
    • Right to exclude strangers from proceedings/galleries.
    • Right to regulate its internal procedure and conduct of business.
    • Right to punish members or outsiders for breach of privilege or contempt of the House.
    • Right to inquire into matters and order attendance of witnesses.
    • Article 122: Courts cannot inquire into the validity of proceedings of Parliament on grounds of irregularity of procedure.
  • Individual Privileges (of Members):
    • Freedom of Speech: Guaranteed in Parliament and its committees by Art. 105(2). No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in Parliament. This freedom is absolute within the House and is not fettered by Article 19(1)(a). It does not extend to speech in a private or personal capacity.
    • Freedom from Arrest: Available only in civil cases. A member cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and for a period of 40 days before and 40 days after the session.
    • No Immunity from Arrest: This privilege is not available in criminal cases or cases of preventive detention.
    • Freedom from Attendance as Witness: Members cannot be compelled to attend as a witness in a court while Parliament is in session.
  • Breach of Privilege vs. Contempt of House:
    • Breach of Privilege: A specific violation of any of the privileges.
    • Contempt of the House: A wider term, encompassing any act or omission that obstructs or impedes either House in the performance of its functions, or lowers its dignity/authority. Breach of privilege is a form of contempt.
    • Punishment: The House has the power to punish both its members and outsiders for breach of privilege or contempt (e.g., by reprimand, admonition, suspension, or imprisonment).
    • Motion: A 'Privilege Motion' is moved by any member to raise a question of breach of privilege. It is governed by Rule No. 222 (Chapter XX) in the Lok Sabha and Rule No. 187 (Chapter XVI) in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Relationship with Fundamental Rights: While there's ongoing debate, the Supreme Court has indicated that parliamentary privileges are subject to fundamental rights, especially Articles 20, 21, 22, and 32 of the Constitution.

Powers and Functions of Parliament (Legislative, Executive, Financial, Constituent)

  • Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989:
    • Contains 23 Sections.
    • Anticipatory bail is generally not permitted under this Act.
  • Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955:
    • Extends to the whole of India.
    • Section 10A provides for the State Government's power to impose collective fine.
    • Section 15A provides 'protection of action taken in good faith'.
    • Section 14 provides for ‘offences by companies’.
    • Punishable offences are cognizable and non-compoundable.
  • Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:
    • Came into force on 28th September, 1993.
    • State Human Rights Commission Chairman & Members hold office for 3 years or till age 70, eligible for reappointment.
    • National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) must have at least one woman Member and at least three Members with human rights knowledge/experience.
    • The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities is a deemed Member of the NHRC for certain purposes.
  • Information Technology Act, 2000:
    • First cyberlaw providing legal infrastructure for e-commerce in India.
  • Disaster Management Act, 2005:
    • Made in 2005.
    • Provided legal basis for extraordinary powers during lockdown, along with Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897.
  • POCSO Act (Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act):
    • Related to children.
  • Uttaranchal (Change of Name) Act, 2006:
    • Came into existence in 2006.
  • Code on Wages, 2019:
    • Amalgamated Acts include: Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Bonus Act, Equal Remuneration Act.
  • Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
    • Definition of Domestic Violence covers physical harm, mental injury (emotional abuse, insult, harassment, threats, dowry demand, sexual abuse), and deprivation of economic/financial resources.
    • Does NOT directly cover non-sharing of household work, non-caring attitude, unhealthy habits, or late coming of male partner.
  • Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015:
    • Statement 1: State Governments are empowered to grant mining leases of major minerals (though via auction). So, "are not empowered" is incorrect.
    • Statement 2: The MMDR Act, 1957, being a Central Act, enables State Governments to make rules for minor minerals, rather than directly specifying their lease conditions. So, "specifies" is incorrect.
  • Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill 2010:
    • Objective (passed in March 2011) was to provide IIT status to eight new institutions.
  • J. S. Verma Committee on crime against women:
    • Recommendation accepted by Government via ordinance (later law): Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during crossexamination.
  • Contempt of Courts Act, 1971:
    • Passed pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee.
    • The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves (Art. 129, 215).
    • The Constitution of India does NOT define Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt; these are defined by the Act.
    • Parliament is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of Court (Entry 14, List I; Art 19(2)).
  • Official Secrets Act, 1923:
    • Does NOT cover unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms.
  • Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
    • Does NOT cover knowingly misleading or interfering with a police or military officer when engaged in duties.
    • Confession before a police officer due to fear of arrest of family members is not relevant (Section 25).
    • Confession before a police officer becomes relevant if evidence is discovered in consequence of the confession (Section 27).
    • 'Fact' includes: Any thing, state of things, or relation of things capable of being perceived by senses; Any mental condition of which any person is conscious (Section 3).
    • Opinion of experts is relevant when related to foreign law, science, art, identity of handwriting, or finger impressions (Section 45).
    • A person summoned by Court to produce a particular document cannot be cross-examined unless called as a witness.
    • 'Evidence' includes both oral and documentary evidence (Section 3).
    • Burden of proof for travelling without a ticket lies with the person (Section 106).
    • To prove a contract contained in several letters, all letters in which the contract is contained must be proved.
    • Questions about the general immoral character of a rape victim/prosecutrix are not lawful in cross-examination (Section 155, Explanation).
    • Confession obtained by threat or inducement by a police officer is not admissible (Section 24 & 25).
    • Section 113B relates to Presumption as to dowry death, not electronic records.
    • Secondary evidence relating to a document cannot be given merely because the original is a private document; it can be given if original is destroyed, lost, not easily movable, etc.
    • 'Public Documents' include records of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, legislatures, Judiciary of India or the Commonwealth or of a foreign country, and also public records of private documents (Section 74).
    • Section 141 defines a leading question.
    • Section 119 provides that a dumb person is a competent witness.
    • Content of a document may be proved by primary or secondary evidence (Section 61).
  • Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019:
    • Covers celebratory gunfire that can endanger personal safety of others.
  • North Eastern Council (NEC) Act, 1971 (amended 2002):
    • The Council comprises: Governor of the Constituent State, Chief Minister of the Constituent State, Three Members nominated by the President of India, The Home Minister of India (as exofficio Chairman).
  • Aviation Security (General):
    • A passenger can carry a licensed revolver in his hold baggage after declaring it to the Airlines at the time of check-in.
    • Birth certificate is not an acceptable ID proof for airport entry.
    • Cricket bats, pool cues, and golf clubs are banned for carriage in personal/ hand baggage on flights from civil airports in India.
    • BCAS COVID-19 countermeasures did NOT stipulate 100% pat-down search.
    • "Known Cargo" refers to cargo accepted from a regulated agent or directly from a consignor, or unknown cargo after being subjected to appropriate security controls/screening.
    • "The Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against Safety of Civil Aviation Act, 1982" gives effect to the Montreal Convention, 1971.
  • Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC):
    • Section 93: Search warrant may be issued if Court believes person will not produce document/thing; or if a general search/inspection will serve the purpose of inquiry/trial.
    • A police officer cannot search a place "in any manner as deemed fit" under a warrant; the scope is defined by the warrant.
    • Section 129: Dispersal of unlawful assembly by civil force can be commanded by any Executive Magistrate or Officer In-charge of a police station or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector.
    • Armed forces can be used to disperse unlawful assembly when it cannot be otherwise dispersed and is necessary for public security. The decision can be made by the Executive Magistrate of the highest rank present.
    • Section 105D: Order of seizure or attachment of property must be confirmed by the Court within 30 days of its being made.
    • Section 102: Power of police officer to seize certain property. If seized property is subject to speedy decay and value is less than ₹500 (and owner unknown/absent), it may be sold by auction under SP's orders. Any police officer may seize suspected stolen property or property found under suspicious circumstances.
    • Section 103: Magistrate may direct search in his presence.
    • Section 47: Power to search a place entered by a person sought to be arrested.
    • Section 51: Search of arrested person and making an inventory of articles found upon him.
    • No arrested person shall be discharged except on his own bond, under special orders of a Magistrate, or on bail. Discharge upon completion of trial is not the condition.
    • Power to prohibit repetition or continuance of public nuisance: District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any Executive Magistrate empowered by State Government/DM.
    • A warrant to search for a document/ parcel in the custody of postal or telegraph authority can be granted by a District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate (Section 92).
    • Section 95: State Government may declare forfeiture and authorize police to seize paintings, drawings, photographs, other visible representations, newspapers, and books. Application to HC to set aside forfeiture must be made within two months from publication in Official Gazette.
    • Section 98: Superintendent of Police does NOT have the power to make an order for restoration of abducted females; Magistrates (DM, SDM, First Class) do.
    • A search warrant remains in force until cancelled or executed.
    • A search warrant can be executed outside the issuing court's jurisdiction if endorsed by a local magistrate.
    • A search warrant may be issued by the District Magistrate for search of a person confined where such confinement amounts to an offence (Section 97).
    • Police power to obtain physical and biological samples extends to convicts and those accused of crime (Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022). If person identifying is mentally or physically disabled, identification process must be videographed in all cases.
  • Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 and Rules, 2001:
    • "Force Custody" means confinement of a member of the Central Industrial Security Force.
    • "Junior Commissioned Officers" is not a category in CISF.
    • CISF responsibility extends to protecting employees of industrial undertakings.
    • During a strike/gherao, the best action for a CISF officer is to escort workers who want to enter premises.
    • Director General may direct technical consultancy services to private sector on request.
    • 'Drill', 'extra guard', and 'fatigue' are legitimate punishments.
    • An enrolled member needs previous written sanction to join a religious organization not recognized as part of the Force (Section 15A).
    • Suspension grounds: disciplinary proceeding contemplated/pending, criminal offence under investigation/inquiry/ trial, activities prejudicial to security of State.
    • "Reduction to a lower stage in time scale of pay by one stage... without cumulative effect, and not adversely affecting promotion" is NOT a major penalty.
    • For sexual harassment complaints, the Complaints Committee established in CISF is the Inquiring Authority.
    • The Central Government is competent to order transfer of supervisory officers.
    • "m-Power" is a mobile application for pay queries and grievances.
    • After arrest, a CISF member must hand over the person to a Police Officer or nearest police station without unnecessary delay (Section 12).
    • Supervisory officers are governed by rules applicable to Central Government officers of corresponding class (e.g., CCS (CCA) Rules).
    • Appreciation letters are NOT surrendered upon ceasing membership.
    • CISF was constituted under an Act of Parliament (CISF Act, 1968).
    • "A" knows how to operate a Laptop is NOT relevant to proving theft of the laptop.
    • CISF personnel deployed at a 'prohibited place' have power of arrest without Magistrate's order or warrant.
    • Sections 10 (Duties), 11 (Arrest without warrant), 12 (Procedure after arrest), and 13 (Search without warrant) all deal with correct provisions of the CISF Act.
    • Section 21 states that The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922 applies to CISF members.
    • Section 4 deals with Superintendence (vests in CG). Section 5 deals with Administration (vests in DG). So, Section 8 is not about superintendence and administration, and administration does not vest in the Inspector General.
    • The 2009 amendment enhanced the territorial purview to deploy outside India.
    • CISF Act amendment years: 1983, 1989, 1999, 2009.
    • CISF induction into an undertaking requires MHA approval, pre-induction formalities, and payment of security deposit.
    • CISF does NOT force employees to join work during strike/agitation/ gherao.
    • CISF Technical Consultancy Services do NOT include planning for defence against nuclear/biological/chemical attack or preparing plans for increasing plant productivity.
    • Security of Taj Mahal was entrusted to CISF due to intelligence reports of terrorist threats.
    • Sainik Sammelans are for communication, grievance redressal, policy updates, NOT for recreation.
    • First Fire Service Training Institute (FSTI) in CISF was established in Deoli.
    • CISF is NOT deployed at ITC Limited, Kolkata (among the given options).
    • "Industrial Undertaking in Public Sector" does NOT include a company set up by members of the general public.
    • There is no blanket prohibition on CISF carrying out searches without a warrant.
    • During suspension, a CISF member continues to be subjected to responsibilities as if on duty.
    • Offences connected with the offender's duties as an enrolled member, even if petty, typically do not fall under ordinary criminal court jurisdiction if the prescribed authority requires internal handling.
    • An officer with local rank is not entitled to extra pay/allowances for that rank.
    • The Managing Director of an undertaking supervises CISF generally but cannot require Unit Commander to report directly to CISF superiors.
    • Senior Commandants and Commandants have power to dismiss enrolled members except Inspectors.
    • Appeal under CISF Rules must be submitted within 30 days of receiving the order.
    • HEC, Ranchi, was the first industrial undertaking where CISF was inducted.
    • Disadvantage of Motorised Patrol: inability to establish personal contact due to speed.
    • Address of the person is NOT an essential ingredient of a Pass System.
    • Inventory of property found on search (Section 12) is given to the person searched and police, NOT to the management concerned.
    • Jorhat Airport was the last airport where CISF was inducted for aviation security duty (among the given options).
    • The Central Industrial Security Force (Amendment) Act, 1983, changed designations: Senior Security Guard to Naik, Security Officer to Assistant Commandant (Chief Security Officer to Assistant Commandant, not Commandant).
    • For inquiring/trying offences under Section 18(1), an officer of Commandant rank exercises powers of a Magistrate of the First Class.
    • Fine amounting to 30 days pay may NOT be awarded as punishment by supervisory officer for careless/negligent duty.
    • Revision petition against appellate order (Section 8) must be filed within three months.
    • Offences like violation of duty or willful breach/neglect of rules (Section 18) are non-cognizable and bailable.
    • Commendation Discs are NOT awarded for accident-free driving and good record for ten years.
    • Monetary reward is admissible to employees of industrial undertakings for detecting serious crime.
    • Supervisory officers of CISF are governed by CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
    • Rules making power to carry out the purpose of the CISF Act, 1968 is given to the Central Government under Section 22.
    • CISF members have power to arrest any person without warrant under Section 11.
    • Dismissal, removal, etc. of enrolled members under Section 8 is subject to Article 311 of the Constitution and Central Government rules.
    • Section 15A restricts members from forming associations, being members of trade unions, labour unions, political associations, or any society/institution/organization not recognized as part of the force.
    • Appeals against Section 8 orders can be filed within 30 days.
    • It is NOT correct for CISF to hand over an arrested person to the management of the undertaking.
  • Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:
    • 'Industry' generally does NOT include domestic service.
    • 'Industrial Dispute' must be between employers and employers, workmen and workmen, or employers and workmen.
    • 'Wages' do NOT include any travelling allowance.
    • 'Lay-off' reasons include shortage of coal/power, raw materials/machinery breakdown, accumulation of stocks.
    • No strike/lock-out within 7 days of conclusion of conciliation proceedings.
    • Mandatory for appropriate Government to make reference for adjudication if dispute involves any question of national importance.
    • Board of Conciliation consists of a Chairman and two or four other members.
    • A practicing lawyer for 15 years is typically ineligible to be a Presiding Officer of a Labour Court.
    • Total number of members in Grievance Redressal Committee shall not exceed six.
    • Section 9A requires 21 days' notice for change in conditions of service.
    • Chapter VB lay-off compensation is not twice that in Chapter VA.
    • The Industrial Tribunal does NOT exercise powers under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
    • Refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with a recognized trade union amounts to an unfair labour practice.
    • Workmen’s Compensation Act was renamed to Employees' Compensation Act in 2009.
    • The Industrial Tribunal is established for adjudication of Industrial Disputes.
    • "Industrial Establishment" for CISF Act means an industrial undertaking engaged in Trade, Business and Services, including companies under Companies Act and partnership firms under Indian Partnership Act.
  • Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 (now Employees' Compensation Act):
    • 'Seaman' means any person forming part of crew, but excludes master of ship.
    • 'Total disablement' means incapacitating workman for all work he was capable of at time of accident.
    • 'Employer' can include a managing agent.
    • The doctrine of notional extensions is applicable.
    • 'Workman' includes a person employed for repairing an article in premises with 15 persons employed.
  • Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952:
    • Section 2(F): An apprentice engaged under the Apprentices Act, 1961 is NOT an employee.
    • For establishments with branches in more than one State, the Central Government is the appropriate Government.
    • The Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Central Board are appointed by the Central Government.
    • An employer deducting employee contributions but not crediting them is guilty of criminal breach of trust under IPC.
  • Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC):
    • Theft requires moving property without consent; so "with or without consent" is NOT an essential ingredient.
    • Destroying wheat in a storeroom with dishonest intent is Mischief.
    • Mischief does NOT require intent to cause loss only to the owner of the property.
    • Criminal breach of trust requires property entrustment/dominion, movable/ immovable property, and misappropriation for own use.
    • Selling entrusted furniture is Criminal Breach of Trust.
    • Human beings cannot be the subject matter of theft.
    • Rioting with a deadly weapon (S.148) is a cognizable and non-bailable offence.
    • 'A' instigating a child under 7 to murder 'Z' makes 'A' liable for murder (Section 302).
    • Dishonest intention is the gist of the offence of theft.
    • 'A' throwing Z's ring into a river with intent to cause wrongful loss is Mischief.
    • A driver diverting a cash van from the pre-determined route with intent to steal completes the offence of theft at that point.
    • Theft by clerk or servant (Section 381) is punishable with imprisonment up to 7 years and fine.
    • Mischief by fire/explosive to destroy a house (S.436) is a cognizable offence, NOT non-cognizable. It is punishable with imprisonment for life or 10 years and fine.
    • A Revenue Officer dishonestly appropriating public money entrusted to him commits Criminal Breach of Trust.
    • Attempt to pick pocket, failing due to empty pocket, is Attempt to commit theft.
    • If A attacks Z under grave provocation (culpable homicide not amounting to murder) and B assists with ill-will (intending to kill), A is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder, and B is guilty of murder.
    • A causing Z's death by illegally omitting food and beating is committing murder.
    • A purchasing poison and mixing it with food for Z's servant to place on Z's table is Attempt to commit murder.
    • Refusal to answer questions by a public servant (legally bound to state truth) is punishable with imprisonment up to three months (Section 179).
    • Section 354A (sexual harassment) victim can only be a woman.
    • A carrier entrusted with property, dishonestly misappropriating it, commits Criminal breach of trust.
    • 'A' in good faith believing Z's property is his, takes it from B's possession, has not committed theft due to lack of dishonest intention.
    • Voluntarily causing grievous hurt and miscarriage is NOT compoundable by parties (Section 320(1) CrPC).
    • Theft as soon as a tree is severed from the ground with dishonest intent.
    • Punishment for theft (Section 379) is imprisonment up to three years or fine or both.
    • Assisting in concealing/disposing stolen property (with knowledge) is punishable with imprisonment up to three years or fine or both (Section 414).
    • 'A' shooting a jointly owned horse to cause wrongful loss to 'Z' is Mischief.
    • Theft having made preparations for causing death/hurt (Section 382) is punishable with rigorous imprisonment up to ten years and fine.
    • Bribery (Section 171B) includes giving gratification to induce/reward electoral right. It does NOT include declaration of public policy or promise of public action. Giving or accepting a treat (food/drink/entertainment) can be considered bribery in electoral context.
    • Sedition is related to Section 124A.
    • Imprisonment for life can be awarded for mischief by fire to destroy a place of worship or mischief by explosive substance to destroy a human dwelling house (Section 436).
    • Employer deducting employee's contribution for Family Pension Fund but not crediting it is guilty of criminal breach of trust.
    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita has replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
  • Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956:
    • 'Child' means a person who has not completed the age of 18 years.
  • Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (and Amendment Act, 2018):
    • "Gratification" is not restricted to pecuniary gratification or to gratification estimable in money.
    • Amendment Act, 2018, came into effect from 26th July, 2018.
    • Liable parties: person inducing public servant to perform improperly, public servant obtaining/accepting undue advantage, commercial organisation offering undue advantage. A person compelled to give undue advantage who reports it is protected.
    • Prior sanction from Central/State Government is necessary to prosecute a public servant for offences under Sections 7, 11, 13, 15 (Section 19).
    • Section 27 makes provision regarding Appeals and Revision to the High Court.
  • Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act):
    • First Indian state to introduce RTI law was Tamil Nadu.
    • The Act has 2 schedules.
    • Second Schedule lists intelligence and security organizations exempted from RTI.
    • Exemption for intelligence/security organizations applies to information submitted by them to the Central Government.
    • Section 24 states information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations is NOT exempted from disclosure by intelligence and security organizations.
    • 'Competent authority' includes: Chief Justice of India (for SC), Chief Justice of High Court (for HC), Administrator under Article 239.
    • NOT an objective: providing unlimited access to classified information.
    • Section 8(1)(j) pertains to personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest.
    • Obligations of public authority (Section 4(1)): maintain records; publish particulars of organization, functions, duties; disseminate information widely, easily accessible; disseminate considering cost, local language, effective method.
    • NOT an obligation to publish on public domain: information received in confidence from foreign Government.
    • Exemptions from disclosure (Section 8(1)): Information forbidden by court/ tribunal or disclosure constitutes contempt of court; Information impeding investigation/apprehension/prosecution.
    • Section 10 deals with severability.
    • Section 2(h) "public authority" means authority/body/institution of self-government established by law (Parliament/State legislature) or by notification/order of appropriate Government.
    • RTI Act is NOT applicable to nonGovernment organizations substantially financed by political parties. It IS applicable to bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate Government.
    • Section 2(i) "record" includes: microfilm, microfiche, facsimile copy of document; reproduction of images in microfilm; material produced by computer/other device.
    • Inquiry by Information Commission: may examine any record, no record can be withheld from it, has powers of a civil court.
    • Public Authority should transfer RTI application to another PA if information is held by, or more closely connected with, that PA (Section 6(3)).
    • Applications received by Public Information Officer (PIO) at admin unit level and Assistant PIO at sub-district/ sub-divisional levels.
    • Applicant shall NOT give reason for requesting information or any personal details except necessary contact info (Section 6(2)).
    • "Public authority" does NOT include Trustees of PM CARES Fund.
    • Right to information is for all citizens of India.
    • Obligation of public authority does NOT include providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant (unless larger public interest) as this is an exemption.
    • "Right to information" does NOT include obtaining information relating to organizations like Border Roads Development Board (which may be exempted under S.24).
    • "Competent authority" does NOT mean Chief Minister of Delhi.
    • "Information" does NOT include information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority.
    • Application for information can be made in English, Hindi, or official language of the area (NOT only English or Hindi).
    • An Information Commissioner does NOT hold office at the pleasure of the President.
    • When only part of information supplied, notice must indicate: reasons for severance, address of authority, right to review decision (Section 10(2)).
    • Section 5(2) provides for designation of Central Assistant Public Information Officers.
    • Section 4 provides for suo motu disclosures.
    • Section 20 imposes penalty by Central Information Commission on PIO for wrongful refusal/delay.
    • Section 6(1) enables Government to prescribe application fee.
    • Sub-sections (4) and (5) of Section 5 provide PIO to seek assistance of other officers.
    • Section 6(3) provides for transfer of application to other public authority.
    • Section 6(1) provides for request in writing/electronic means in English/ Hindi/official language.
    • Section 2(f) defines 'information' as 'any material in any form'.
  • Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970:
    • Contract labour is hired, supervised, contracted, and remunerated by a contractor for the user enterprise.
  • Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act (Bifurcation Act):
    • Section 46 (3) states backward districts of the State are to be funded by Special Package of Central Government.
  • Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act):
    • National or State Commission for Protection of Child Rights examines/reviews safeguards and recommends measures.
    • "Develop a framework of national curriculum" is NOT a duty solely of the appropriate Government. NCERT lays down curriculum (Section 29(1)).
    • In School Management Committee, parents/guardians representation should be at least three-quarter.
    • Chapter 4 deals with Responsibilities of Schools and Teachers.
    • NCERT is authorized by Central Government (Section 29(1)) to lay down curriculum and evaluation procedure.
    • Section 10 states duty of parent/guardian to admit child to neighborhood school.
    • Section 28 prevents teachers from engaging in private tuition, NOT from private system.
    • Chapter III deals with Duties of Appropriate Government, Local Authority and Parents; Chapter V deals with Curriculum and Completion of Elementary Education.
    • Punishment for receiving 'Capitation Fee' is upto Ten Times of the fee charged (Section 13(2)).
  • Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013:
    • "Acid Attack" was made a separate offence in India in 2013.
  • Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018:
    • Deemed to have come into force on 21st April, 2018.
  • Indian Patents Act, 1970:
    • Criteria of Patentability: Novelty, Inventive step, Capable of industrial application.
  • Historical Codes (Years):
    • Code of Civil Procedure: 1859 (Historical)
    • Indian Penal Code: 1860
    • Criminal Procedure Code: 1861/1862 (Historical)
    • Police Act: 1861
  • Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019:
    • The Central Government has the authority to create the National Road Safety Board.
    • 'Golden hour' in motor vehicle accidents is one hour after traumatic injury.
    • Motor Vehicle Accident Fund provides compensation to victims of hit-and-run accidents and cashless treatment to road accident victims.
    • Contract carriage terms can be expressed or implied.
    • School buses must have a first-aid box, fire extinguisher, be painted yellow, have "School Bus" written, and "On School Duty" if hired.
    • 'Goods' for transportation include livestock, and anything carried by the vehicle other than equipment used with it, but NOT living persons and personal luggage of passengers.
    • 'Gross vehicle weight' means total weight of vehicle and load certified/ registered by registering authority.
    • Rules for design, construction, maintenance of National Highways are framed by the Central Government.
    • Juvenile committing offence will not be eligible for driving license until age 25.
    • No fine if a child (in vehicle, not secured) is of fourteen years or above.
    • Traffic accident investigation procedures include: Scene assessment, Diversion of traffic, Providing medical assistance, Seizure of evidence.
    • Parking/halting stations determined by State Government (or authorized authority) in consultation with local authority.
    • 'Blackspot' for road safety means a short stretch of road or location with many crashes/fatalities/injuries over time.
    • PUC Certificate required every six months after one year of initial registration.
    • Removal of unattended/illegally parked vehicles can be authorized by a police officer, motor vehicle inspector, or person authorized by local body.
    • Exemption from helmet for Sikhs wearing turbans, fine for no helmet is ₹1,000 and DL suspension for three months, all helmets require ISI mark.
    • Protective headgear on motorcycle is mandatory for persons above the age of 4 years.
    • Payment of award by Motor Vehicles Claims Tribunal must be made within thirty days.
    • Special provision exists in MVA for registering vehicles of diplomatic/ consular officers to recognize diplomatic privileges.
    • Detailed Accident Report (DAR) submitted to victim(s), owner/driver of offending vehicle, insurance company, State Legal Service Authority.
    • Insurance company will NOT bear liability if driver has an invalid driving license.
  • Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPS Act):
    • Confession made to officers under the NDPS Act needs closer scrutiny.
  • Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
    • It does NOT explicitly provide a "Right to data portability".
  • Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
    • Passed in 2019, came into effect on July 20th, 2020.
    • Does NOT guarantee a "Right to exploitation".
    • Director General heads the Central Authority's investigation wing.
    • Consumer can claim compensation if product is damaged.
    • Act covers direct selling, e-commerce, and electronic service providers.
  • Intellectual Property Rights:
    • The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is NOT directly related to IPR.
    • National IPR Policy was passed in 2016.
  • The Prisoners (Attendance in Courts) Act:
    • Enacted by Parliament on 20 September, 1955.
  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSSA):
    • Section 25 deals with all imports of articles of food to be subject to this Act.
    • No court shall take cognizance of an offence after one year from commission, but can extend to three years with recorded reasons (Section 77).
    • Section 47 covers Sampling and Analysis.
    • Section 62 covers Punishment for obstructing or impersonating a Food Safety Officer.
    • Section 59 covers Punishment for unsafe food.
    • Food Safety Appellate Tribunal may be established by the Central Government or State Government.
    • Adjudicating officer/Tribunal, when adjudging penalty, shall have due regard to repetitive nature of contravention, amount of gain/advantage, amount of loss caused, and other relevant factors (Section 49).
    • Ex-officio members of the Food Authority do NOT hold office for 3 years; they hold it by virtue of their other position.
    • Penalty for misbranded food is ₹ three lakhs (Section 52).
  • Competition Act, 2002:
    • Section 42A deals with compensation in case of contravention of orders of commission.
    • Horizontal Agreement example: Agreement between producers or between wholesalers or between retailers, operating at the same level in the economic process.
    • Primary objective is to enhance competition in markets.
  • Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 (BIS Act):
    • Penalty for contravention is recovered as per Judicial Magistrate First Class or Metropolitan Magistrate.
    • All orders/decisions/instruments issued by the Bureau shall be authenticated by the signature of authorized officer(s) (Section 37).
    • Objects include quality assurance, establishing a National Standards Body, and harmonious development of standardization activities.
    • Bronze is NOT a precious metal.
    • Finance Minister is NOT typically an official of the Governing Council.
    • "Reject goods or material to which the standard mark has been used" is NOT a power of a certification officer.
    • Contravention of Section 11 or 26(1) is punishable with fine up to five lakh rupees.
    • Director General is appointed by the Central Government.
    • Powers and functions of the Bureau are exercised and performed by the Governing Council.
    • Central Government makes grants and loans to the Bureau.
    • Certification officer has power to search and seize (under due process).
  • Legal Metrology Act, 2009:
    • Provisions relating to verification/ stamping of weights and measures do NOT apply to: weights/measures used for scientific investigation/research, manufactured exclusively for export, or used in arms/ammunition factories for Armed Forces.
    • Base unit of 'Mass' is Kilogram.
    • A Director can be appointed as a nominee for company offences.
    • Penalty for second offence in Statutory label declarations is ₹1,00,000.
    • Central Government may appoint a Director of Legal Metrology.
    • Penalty for altering a reference standard or working standard is imprisonment up to one year.
  • Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (RERA):
    • Real Estate Appellate Tribunal: Members present can choose a presiding member if Chairperson is unable. Questions decided by majority vote, Chairperson/presiding member has casting vote. Appeals should be disposed of within 60 days.
    • "To issue interim order" is NOT a function of the RERA Authority.
    • Penalty for providing false information or contravening registration provisions is fine up to 5% of the project cost (Section 61).
  • Electricity Act, 2003:
    • Central Government shall establish a National Load Despatch Centre (NLDC) for optimum scheduling/ despatch (Section 26).
    • Constitution/functions of NLDC are prescribed by CG.
    • NLDC (and RLDC) may be operated by a Government company or authority/corporation.
    • Section 161 deals with Notice of accidents.
    • Section 166 deals with Coordination forum.
    • Punishment for theft of Electricity (Section 135) is imprisonment up to three years or fine or both.
    • National policy on electrification and distribution for rural areas is formulated by Central Government in consultation with State Government and State Commission (Section 5).
    • Section 25 deals with Power to recover charges.
    • Section 24 deals with Vesting of utility in purchaser.
  • Sale of Goods Act, 1930:
    • Contract of sale is transfer/agreement to transfer property in goods for price; can be between part-owners.
    • Contract of sale can be absolute or conditional.
    • Transfer of property = sale; future transfer/condition = agreement to sell.
    • Agreement to sell becomes sale when time elapses or conditions are fulfilled.
    • If specific goods perish without fault of seller/buyer before sale but after agreement to sell, the agreement is void (Section 8).
    • Seller offering to take back animal if not as described indicates a condition.
    • The Act contains provisions on how contracts for sale are made and about their validity/legality (Sections 5, 10, 11, 12).
  • Insurance Act, 1938:
    • Section 119: Powers of Authority not to apply to International Financial Services Centre.
    • Section 118A: Inspection and supply of copies of published prospectus.
    • Section 116A: Summary of returns to be published.
    • Section 116: Alteration of forms.
    • Section 105: Penalties for wrongfully obtaining or withholding property.
    • Section 64VA: Sufficiency of Assets.
    • Section 64Q: Powers of Executive Committees to act together in certain cases.
    • Section 64I: Duration and dissolution of Executive Committees.
    • Insurer's right to reject a claim is subject to Section 45 (policy not to be questioned after three years for misstatement).
    • 'Court' means Civil court of original jurisdiction.
    • Appointment of Controller of Insurance is made by the Central Government.
  • Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940:
    • Drugs are deemed misbranded if: container makes false claim; coloured/ coated/powdered/polished to conceal damage or appear better therapeutic value; not labelled in prescribed manner (Section 17).
    • Cosmetics are deemed misbranded if: label bears false/misleading statement; contains non-prescribed colour; not labelled in prescribed manner (Section 17A).
    • Drugs Technical Advisory Board consists of 8 ex-officio members and 10 nominated/elected members (Section 5).
    • License for manufacturing cosmetics is granted in Form 32 (Drugs & Cosmetics Rules, 1945).

Presiding Officers of Parliament (Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman, Deputy Chairman)

  • The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is a Union Cabinet Minister responsible for managing the government's business in Parliament, coordinating legislative affairs, and maintaining liaison between the government and Parliament.
  • This portfolio is held by an individual minister whose name changes with government formations and cabinet reshuffles.
  • As of early 2024, the Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is Pralhad Joshi.
  • None of the options provided in the MCQs (Ravi Shankar Prasad, Ananth Kumar, Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore) hold the position of current Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
  • (Historical Context: Ananth Kumar served as the Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs from July 2016 until his demise in November 2018.)

Qualifications and Disqualifications for Membership of Parliament

  • The Representation of the People Act, 1950, covers allocation of seats in the House of the People, State Legislative Assemblies, and State Legislative Councils; delimitation of Parliamentary/Assembly Constituencies; electoral rolls; and local authorities for elections to SLCs.
  • The Representation of the People Act, 1951, covers qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures, conduct of elections, and election disputes.
  • The term 'Office of Profit' is not defined in the Constitution of India.
  • The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, exempts several posts from disqualification on the ground of 'Office of Profit'.
  • The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, has been amended five times.
  • Security deposit for a candidate contesting for President or Vice-President of India is Rs. 15,000 each.
  • During suspension from office, a member of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF):
    • is subject to the same responsibilities and discipline as before suspension.
    • can be subjected to any penalty that could be imposed before suspension.
    • does not cease to be a member of the Force for the duration of suspension.
  • The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922, is applicable to members of the Central Industrial Security Force.
  • A member of the CISF can seek protection for an act committed in bonafide discharge of duty under the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.
  • Method of recruitment, age limits, and other qualifications for CISF posts are specified in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001.
  • Conditions of eligibility for appointment to the CISF include being a citizen of India, bearing a good moral character, and belonging to categories declared eligible by the Central Government. Training in civil defence is not a general condition.
  • CISF members are subject to restrictions: they cannot associate with any trade union or labour union, be a member of any political association, or be a member of any society not recognized as part of the force. Publishing a book of scientific character is permissible.
  • The qualification of a member of the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal is that the person is, or has been, a District Judge.
  • A person is qualified to be an agent if, in respect of an offence (criminal misappropriation, criminal breach of trust, cheating, or forgery), five years have elapsed and an authority has declared the conviction ceased to operate.
  • Under Section 2(m) of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, "Person" does not include a Joint undivided family of a Hindu. It includes every department/office, every Local Authority, and any officer of Government.

26. The Supreme Court

Practice MCQs: The Parliamentary Act

Budgetary Process and Financial Control by Parliament

  1. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

    Asked in: UPSC IAS 2020

    1. Long standing parliamentary convention
    2. Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
    3. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
    4. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

    The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, is an Act of the Parliament of India that sets targets for the government to establish financial discipline, reduce the fiscal deficit, and improve macroeconomic management. Section 3(1) of the Act requires the Central Government to lay before both Houses of Parliament certain documents along with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget). These documents include the Macro Economic Framework Statement, the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement, and the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.

  2. What is correct in case of Vote on Account?

    Asked in: FISHERY OFFICER EXTENSION OFFICER (FO EO) 2020

    1. Account to be transferred to State Government
    2. An estimate of advance payments for government departments
    3. Vote of the Parliament members for No- Confidence Motion
    4. None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: B. An estimate of advance payments for government departments

    A Vote on Account provides the executive branch with the necessary financial authority to continue government operations during the interim period.

Composition of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha)

  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List II (Revised designation List I As per CISF (Old designation) (Amendment) Act, 1983)

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2023

    1. Security Guard 1. Naik
    2. Security Officer 2. Constable
    3. Head Security 3. Head Constable Guard
    4. Senior Security 4. Assistant Command‐ Guard ant A. 2 4 3 1 B. 2 3 4 1 C. 1 3 4 2 D. 1 4 3 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Security Guard 1. Naik

    The CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983 introduced revised designations aligning them more closely with standard paramilitary/police ranks, reflecting a restructuring of the force's hierarchy.

  2. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Floating Constituencies are the constituencies without fixed geographical borders. ii. In the constituency of Sangha in Sikkim, only Buddhist monks can contest and vote.

    Asked in: APPSC Group II Mains paper 1 2025

    1. Only i
    2. Only ii
    3. Both i and ii
    4. Neither i nor ii
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both i and ii

    Statement i is correct. Floating constituencies are electoral divisions that are not defined by fixed geographical boundaries. They might be based on professions, groups, or other non-territorial criteria. Statement ii is correct. The Sangha constituency in Sikkim is a unique constituency specifically reserved for the registered Buddhist monks of the state. Only these monks can contest and vote in elections for this particular seat in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly.

  3. The Westminster Model adopted in the Indian Constitution is related to - Presidential System Secular State Parliamentary System Republicanism

    Asked in: School Lecturer (School Edu.) 2018 1 2018

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer

    Answer: C. (3)

    The Westminster model is synonymous with the Parliamentary System, which emphasizes the fusion of powers between the executive and legislature, and the accountability of the executive to the legislature.

Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings (Questions, Zero Hour, Adjournment Motion, No-Confidence Motion)

  1. Under which section of the ‘Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023’ is Zero FIR mentioned? - Question not attempted

    Asked in: Programmer Exam 2024

    1. Section 173
    2. Section 428
    3. Section 302
    4. Section 150
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Section 150

    Section 150 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 deals with the concept of Zero FIR, ensuring that no victim is denied registration of their complaint due to jurisdictional issues.

Legislative Procedures (Ordinary, Money, Financial, Constitutional Amendment Bills)

  1. The Disaster Management Act was enacted in India in the year

    Asked in: APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2011

    1. 2006
    2. 2005
    3. 2007
    4. 2008
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2005

    The Disaster Management Act 2005 provides the legal and institutional framework for disaster management in India at the national, state, and district levels, establishing bodies like the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).

  2. Under the scheme of new GST Bills, 2017, subject to a ceiling fixed under GST Act, the changes in GST rates can normally be effected by

    Asked in: APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2016

    1. Government through notification
    2. Government with prior approval of President
    3. Parliament through an ordinary Bill
    4. Parliament through Constitutional Amendment
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Government through notification

    - GST Council: Recommends GST rates and policy changes. - Implementation: Through government notifications (Central and State). - Legal basis: Within the framework of GST Acts.

  3. Which of the following preventive detention Acts is/are not in force in India? (i) NSA (ii) MISA (iii) UAPA (iv) FEMA Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    Asked in: APSC CCE Prelims Exam 2022

    1. Only (i) and (ii)
    2. Only (ii) and (iii)
    3. Only (ii) and (iv)
    4. Only (ii)
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Only (ii)

    (i) NSA (National Security Act, 1980) is a preventive detention law that is currently in force in India. (ii) MISA (Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971) was a controversial preventive detention law enacted during the Emergency and was repealed in

  4. It is not in force. (iii) UAPA (Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967) is an anti- terrorism law currently in force, which includes provisions for extended detention, although it is not classified purely as a preventive detention act in the same category as NSA or the repealed MISA in all contexts. However, it is a law currently in force. (iv) FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999) is an economic law regulating foreign exchange transactions. It is currently in force but is not a preventive detention act itself, although related acts like COFEPOSA (Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974) are preventive detention laws often linked to FEMA contraventions and are also in force. However, FEMA itself is not the preventive detention act. Considering the list, MISA is the only act that is definitively not in force and was a preventive detention act. NSA and UAPA are in force. FEMA is in force but is not a preventive detention act. Therefore, only (ii) is not in force among the list, particularly qualifying as a preventive detention act from the historical context provided by MISA and NSA. 12. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct ? 1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980 2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments 3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 1 2016

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

    - The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, aims to recognize and vest forest rights in forest- dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations. - The Act specifies that the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes must have been primarily residing in and depending on forests or forest lands for bona fide livelihood needs. The definition of "forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes" and "other traditional forest dwellers" in Section 2 sets the cutoff date for eligibility based on residence prior to December 13, 2005. The date October 25, 1980, is relevant to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, regarding the diversion of forest land. - Implementation of the Act is primarily the responsibility of the State/UT Governments through various committees constituted at the Gram Sabha, Sub- Divisional, and District levels, overseen by a State Level Monitoring Committee.

  5. Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 1 2019

    1. The Parliament may by law constitute Admin‐ istrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels.
    2. Tribunals may look into disputes and com‐ plaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
    3. Tribunals established by a law of the Parlia‐ ment can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.
    4. The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Tribunals established by a law of the Parlia‐ ment can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

    - Administrative Tribunals can exclude the jurisdiction of lower courts and original jurisdiction of High Courts in specific matters. - The power of judicial review of High Courts (Articles 226/227) and the Supreme Court (Article 32/136) over decisions of tribunals cannot be excluded.

  6. Which one of the following statements is not true of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2016

    1. This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence.
    2. Only women can make a complaint under this legislation.
    3. Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
    4. The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.

    Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, defines 'respondent' as any adult male person who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the aggrieved person. However, the proviso to this section explicitly states that an aggrieved wife or female living in a marriage-like relationship may also file a complaint against a relative of the husband or the male partner, which includes female relatives (like mother-in-law, sister-in-law). Therefore, relief can be sought against female relatives as well, not just against the husband or male partner.

  7. Which one of the following Labour Codes notified by the Government of India incorporated various provisions of the Central Labour Acts such as the Factories Act, 1948 and Plantations Labour Act, 1951 ?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2022

    1. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
    2. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020
    3. The Code on Wages, 2019
    4. The Code on Social Security, 2020
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020

    - The Government of India consolidated 29 Central Labour Laws into four Labour Codes: the Code on Wages, 2019; the Industrial Relations Code, 2020; the Code on Social Security, 2020; and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code,

  8. - The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 specifically covers the aspects of safety, health, and working conditions for workers, integrating provisions from acts like the Factories Act, Plantations Labour Act, Mines Act, Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, etc. 16. Which one of the following statements about Indian Maritime University (IMU) is not correct ?

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2023

    1. It was established through an Act of Parlia‐ ment as a Central University.
    2. It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy.
    3. It is located in Chennai.
    4. It was established to extend the benefits of knowledge and skill for development of individu‐ als and society by associating closely with local, regional and national issues of development.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy.

    - IMU is a Central University under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways. - It integrates several existing maritime training institutions. - Its focus is on comprehensive maritime education and training.

  9. Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, is/are correct ? 1. This Act provides that electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as the handwritten signature. 2. Both the Central Government and State Governments have been given the power to make rules with respect to electronic signature. Select the answer using the code given below :

    Asked in: UPSC CDS 2 2024

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    The IT Act, 2000, is the principal law in India dealing with cybercrime and e-commerce, granting legal validity to electronic interactions. Electronic signatures are legally equivalent to handwritten signatures under this Act.

  10. Which sentence of the following sentences is correct about the statutory bodies?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2018

    1. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.
    2. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes of the Constitution.
    3. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can't pass.
    4. None of the above.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.

    - Statutory bodies are public sector organizations or committees established by a specific law or Act passed by the Parliament or a State Legislature. They derive their powers, functions, and structure from the statute that created them. Examples include the National Human Rights Commission, the National Green Tribunal, and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). - Constitutional bodies, on the other hand, are established directly by the Constitution of India (e.g., Election Commission, UPSC, Finance Commission). Their powers and functions are laid down in the Constitution itself. - Statement A correctly defines statutory bodies as those set up by statutes passed by Parliament and State Legislatures. - Statement B is incorrect because bodies set up by the Constitution are constitutional bodies, not statutory bodies. - Statement C is incorrect as statutory bodies are created by statutes that the Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.

  11. What is the latest status of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019?

    Asked in: GPSC Prelims CSP 1 2019

    1. The Bill was presented in Lok Sabha.
    2. The Bill was passed by Lok Sabha and is pending in Rajya Sabha.
    3. The Bill has been passed both by Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
    4. The Bill has become an Act.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. The Bill has become an Act.

    - The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, which criminalized instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat), was passed by the Lok Sabha on July 25, 2019, and by the Rajya Sabha on July 30, 2019. - Upon receiving the Presidential assent on July 31, 2019, the Bill became the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.

Parliamentary Committees (Types, Functions, Role)

  1. In the year 2009, a Committee was constituted to review the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and suggest a change therein. The Committee was

    Asked in: EI GS T&TR Transport Deptt 2702 2025

    1. the S. K. Das Committee
    2. the Naresh Chandra Committee
    3. the Dinesh Mohan Committee
    4. the S. Sundar Committee
    Show answer

    Answer: B. the Naresh Chandra Committee

    The question asks to identify the committee formed in 2009 to review the Motor Vehicles Act,

  2. The Naresh Chandra Committee was established for this purpose. 195. Consumer mediation Cell has to hold which of the following documents?

    Asked in: Paper I 6

    1. List of cases handled by the cell
    2. Records of all proceedings
    3. List of empanelled mediators
    4. All of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: D. All of the above

    The Consumer Mediation Cell is mandated to maintain comprehensive records, including case lists, proceeding records, and lists of empanelled mediators, to ensure efficient and transparent dispute resolution through mediation.

  3. Which one of the following is not correct according to the Consumer Protection Act 2019?

    Asked in: Paper I 6

    1. District Commission shall consist of four members
    2. National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission consist of a person who is or has been Judge of the Supreme Court
    3. District Commission shall consist of a Lady social worker
    4. State commission shall consist of a person who is or has been Judge of a High Court
    Show answer

    Answer: A. District Commission shall consist of four members

    The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, specifies the composition of various consumer dispute redressal commissions. A District Commission typically comprises a President and two members, one of whom must be a woman.

Parliamentary Privileges and Immunities

  1. Privileged communication between husband and wife can be admitted as evidence in a

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. charge of murder against the husband
    2. case of embezzlement by the husband
    3. case of matrimonial dispute between them
    4. charge of sedition against the husband
    Show answer

    Answer: C. case of matrimonial dispute between them

    - Communications between spouses during marriage are generally privileged and cannot be compelled or permitted to be disclosed without consent. - This privilege is subject to exceptions, including legal proceedings directly between the spouses or where one is accused of a crime against the other.

  2. Which one of the following regarding witnesses under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correct?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. An accomplice cannot be a witness.
    2. Communication between lawyer and client is privileged, hence cannot be admitted as evidence.
    3. Competency of witness shall be decided by Court.
    4. A dumb witness may give his/her witness only in writing which may amount to oral wit‐ ness.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. An accomplice cannot be a witness.

    Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that "An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person; and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice." Therefore, an accomplice can be a witness.

  3. Which of the following statements is not correct? According to the Central Industrial Security Force Rules

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. a member of the Central Industrial Security Force may use all means necessary to effect an arrest as long as such Force is minimum re‐ quired in that particular situation
    2. the member of the Force making an arrest may also search the person so arrested but only if that person volunteers to be searched so as to prevent allegations of violation of the human rights
    3. if a search is carried out, a copy of the inventory of the items taken in possession after the search is required to be prepared and given to the person so arrested
    4. an inventory is required to be prepared even if nothing is seized after search
    Show answer

    Answer: B. the member of the Force making an arrest may also search the person so arrested but only if that person volunteers to be searched so as to prevent allegations of violation of the human rights

    This statement is incorrect. Standard legal procedures for arrest in India (e.g., under the Code of Criminal Procedure, which generally applies unless specific rules override it) permit a police officer (and similarly, security forces with arrest powers) to search the person arrested to prevent concealment of weapons, evidence, etc. There is no requirement for the arrested person to "volunteer" for the search. Lawful search upon arrest is a permissible procedure under the law and does not depend on the suspect's consent; consent is generally required for searches without lawful authority or warrant under other circumstances.

  4. The National Industrial Security Academy is located at

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. Hyderabad
    2. Arakkonam
    3. Mundali
    4. Bhilai
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Hyderabad

    The National Industrial Security Academy (NISA) is the premier training institution for the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). It is located in Hakimpet, Hyderabad, Telangana.

  5. Which of the following does not fall within the scope of technical consultancy services rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. Study of the industrial security and fire protection related problems and suggesting appropriate solutions
    2. Preparing disaster management and contin‐ gency plan and conducting rehearsals for such plans
    3. Planning and designing of communication network and preparation of related operations instructions
    4. Procurement of security equipment for the establishment to which it has to provide secur‐ ity
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Procurement of security equipment for the establishment to which it has to provide secur‐ ity

    The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) provides technical consultancy services related to security and fire protection. Their scope includes assessing problems, suggesting solutions, planning security systems, preparing disaster/contingency plans, and designing communication networks. However, the actual procurement of security equipment is typically the responsibility of the establishment seeking the security services, based on the recommendations provided by CISF. CISF acts as a consultant, not a purchasing agent for the client organization.

  6. Central Industrial Security Force was created

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2019

    1. under an Act of the Parliament
    2. as per a Resolution of the Cabinet
    3. as per an Executive order issued by the Ministry of Defence
    4. as per an Executive order issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs
    Show answer

    Answer: A. under an Act of the Parliament

    The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) was established under an Act of the Parliament of India. The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, provided for the constitution and regulation of an armed force of the Union for the better protection and security of industrial undertakings owned by the Central Government. Over time, its mandate has expanded to include other types of establishments and critical infrastructure.

  7. What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous prisoner on board an aeroplane ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2020

    1. 4
    2. 3
    3. 2
    4. 1
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2

    - Security protocols for transporting dangerous or high-risk prisoners are strict due to the potential threat posed during transit. - A single escort would be insufficient for controlling a dangerous individual, especially in the confined and potentially disruptive environment of an aircraft. - While more escorts might be required depending on the specific risk assessment, two escorts provide a basic level of security and control, allowing for redundancy and mutual support.

  8. A screener should not be doing screening for more than

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2020

    1. 10 minutes
    2. 15 minutes
    3. 20 minutes
    4. 25 minutes
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 20 minutes

    Limiting the continuous screening time is crucial to prevent fatigue, maintain alertness, and ensure effectiveness in detecting threats. After this period, screeners should be rotated to other less demanding tasks or take a break.

  9. Which one of the following is not necessary for the ROP to be successful ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2020

    1. Maintaining full confidentiality
    2. Full strength should be there
    3. Good knowledge of area
    4. Can move once the convoy starts moving
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Can move once the convoy starts moving

    A Road Opening Party (ROP) is deployed ahead of a convoy to survey and clear the route, neutralize potential threats, and ensure safe passage before the convoy reaches a particular point. The ROP must secure the route and maintain its position until the convoy has safely passed through the cleared area. Moving only after the convoy starts would defeat the purpose of advance security clearance.

  10. Who among the following was appointed the first Director General of the CISF ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2020

    1. Shri P.S. Bhinder
    2. Shri Surendranath
    3. Shri A.F. Rustomjee
    4. Shri Trinath Mishra
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Shri Trinath Mishra

    Shri B. Mukherjee took charge as the first head of the CISF when it was formally established in 1969 following the recommendations of a commission he headed.

  11. Every warrant of arrest issued by a court under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall remain in force

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2020

    1. until it is executed.
    2. until it is cancelled by any court.
    3. for a period of one month.
    4. for a maximum period of 3 months from the date of its issue.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. until it is executed.

    - Section 70(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 explicitly states the duration of a warrant of arrest. - Unlike summons which have a return date, a warrant of arrest does not automatically expire after a certain period unless specifically stated by the court or law in a particular context. - The warrant remains legally valid and executable until the person is arrested or the court revokes the warrant.

Powers and Functions of Parliament (Legislative, Executive, Financial, Constituent)

  1. How many Sections are there under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. 18
    2. 22
    3. 23
    4. 27
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 23

    The original Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, comprises a total of 23 sections. These sections are numbered from 1 to 23.

  2. Under which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has 'power of State Government to impose collective fine' been provided?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. Section 10
    2. Section 10 A
    3. Section 14
    4. Section 14 A
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Section 10 A

    Section 10A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, empowers the State Government to impose collective fines on the inhabitants of an area if they are involved in or abet the commission of any offence under the Act, or fail to take reasonable steps to prevent its commission or resist the offenders.

  3. Under which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has 'protection of action taken in good faith' been provided?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. Section 16 A
    2. Section 15 A
    3. Section 16 B
    4. Section 14 A
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Section 16 A

    This section protects public servants or any person acting under the Act from suits, prosecutions, or other legal proceedings for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under the Act or rules/orders made thereunder.

  4. Under which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has ‘offences by companies’ been provided?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. Section 10
    2. Section 12
    3. Section 14
    4. Section 16
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Section 14

    It states that if an offence under the Act is committed by a company, every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to, the company for the conduct of the business of the company, as well as the company itself, shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence.

  5. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. whole of India
    2. whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
    3. Union Territories
    4. only the State of Jammu and Kashmir
    Show answer

    Answer: A. whole of India

    Following the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, like other central laws, became applicable to the entire territory of India, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

  6. Which statement is true in relation to the Protection of Human Rights Act?

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2018

    1. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1993.
    2. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993.
    3. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1995.
    4. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1995.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993.

    This date is the official commencement date of the Act, which was enacted to provide for the constitution of national and state human rights commissions and human rights courts for the better protection of human rights.

  7. First cyberlaw which provides the legal infrastructure for e-commerce in India is

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2019

    1. The Information Technology Act, 1996
    2. The Information Technology Act, 2000
    3. The Information Technology Act, 1998
    4. The Information Technology Act, 1990
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Information Technology Act, 2000

    The IT Act, 2000, enacted by the Parliament of India, came into effect on 17 October 2000. It gave legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures, thereby facilitating e-commerce and e-governance and also defined cybercrimes and penalties.

  8. All the punishable offences under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2019

    1. Cognizable and Triable Summarily
    2. Cognizable and Non-compoundable
    3. Non-Cognizable and Bailable
    4. Non-Cognizable and Compoundable
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Cognizable and Non-compoundable

    Section 15 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 states: "Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, every offence punishable under this Act shall be cognizable...". While some offences punishable with imprisonment up to three months may be tried summarily, the primary characteristics applicable to all offences are cognizable and non- compoundable.

  9. The Disaster Management Act was made in

    Asked in: MPPSC CS Prelims 2020

    1. 2006
    2. 2003
    3. 2005
    4. 2009
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2005

    The Act led to the establishment of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister, as well as State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) and District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs).

  10. When did the Protection of Human Rights Act come into force in India ?

    Asked in: UKPSC CS Prelims 2012

    1. 1990
    2. 1991
    3. 1992
    4. 1993
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1993

    - The Act defines "human rights" as rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. - It provides for the constitution of the NHRC and SHRCs to inquire into violations of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violations by a public servant.

  11. POCSO Act is related to :

    Asked in: UKPSC CS Prelims 2012

    1. Oil companies
    2. Children
    3. Civil servants
    4. Oceans
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Children

    The Act was enacted in 2012 in India.

Presiding Officers of Parliament (Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman, Deputy Chairman)

  1. Who is the Minister in Charge of Parliamentary Affairs in India?

    Asked in: District Library and Information Officer(DLIO) 2018

    1. Ravi Shankar Prasad
    2. Ananth Kumar
    3. Rajivardhan Singh Rathore
    4. None of them
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None of them

    Knowing the key ministerial portfolios and the individuals holding them is important for understanding the governance structure of India.

Qualifications and Disqualifications for Membership of Parliament

  1. What is the security deposit amount which a candidate contests election for the posts of President and Vice-President of India has to tender ?

    Asked in: HPPSC HPAS Prelims 2018

    1. Rs. 25,000 and 20,000 respectively
    2. Rs. 20,000 and 15,000 respectively
    3. Rs. 20,000 each
    4. Rs. 15,000 each
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Rs. 15,000 each

    The security deposit is intended to ensure that only serious candidates contest the election. If a candidate fails to secure a minimum number of votes (one-sixth of the total valid votes polled), the deposit is forfeited.

  2. Which of the following is not a provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1950?

    Asked in: PPSC CS Prelims 2021

    1. Qualifications and disqualifications for mem‐ bership of Parliament and State Legislatures
    2. Allocation of seats in the House of the People, the State Legislative Assemblies and the State Legislative Councils
    3. Delimitation of Parliamentary, Assembly Con‐ stituencies
    4. Local authorities for purposes of elections to the State Legislative Councils
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Qualifications and disqualifications for mem‐ bership of Parliament and State Legislatures

    The Representation of the People Acts, 1950 and 1951 are the two main laws governing elections in India. They divide the subject matter of parliamentary democracy and elections between them.

  3. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the ground of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well- defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Asked in: UPSC CAPF 2010 · UPSC IAS 2019

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

    The concept of 'Office of Profit' is not defined in the Constitution but has been subject to judicial interpretation. Parliament has the power to exempt certain offices through legislation (like the 1959 Act) from being considered offices of profit for disqualification purposes.

  4. As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, which one of the following statements is incorrect? During his/ her suspension from office, a member of the Force

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2017

    1. is subject to the same responsibilities as he/she had before suspension.
    2. is subject to the same discipline as he/she was subject to before suspension.
    3. can be subjected to any penalty that could be imposed on him/her before his/her suspension.
    4. ceases to be a member of the Force for the duration of his/her suspension.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. ceases to be a member of the Force for the duration of his/her suspension.

    - Suspension is a disciplinary action or an interim measure pending inquiry. It does not terminate the employment or membership in the force. - During suspension, a member is still subject to the rules, discipline, and responsibilities (in terms of conduct and adherence to rules) of the force. - Penalties, including termination or dismissal, can be imposed after the completion of disciplinary proceedings, which may occur during or after the suspension period.

  5. Which one of the following Acts is applicable to the members of the Central Industrial Security Force ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2017 · The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922

    1. The Wages Act, 1936
    2. The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922
    3. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
    4. The Factories Act, 1948
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922

    aims to prevent activities that incite disaffection or breach of discipline amongst members of police forces. - Section 21A of the CISF Act, 1968 specifically states that certain Acts, including the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, do not apply to members of the Force. This reinforces that CISF members are governed by specific service laws and other laws applicable to disciplined forces, like the 1922 Act.

  6. A member of the Central Industrial Security Force can seek protection for an act committed in the course of bonafide discharge of his/her duty under which one of the following Acts ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2017

    1. The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968
    2. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
    3. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
    4. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

    - CISF is constituted under the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, and is an armed force of the Union. - Section 197 of the CrPC is a general provision applicable across India that offers protection to various categories of public servants, including members of armed forces, against prosecution for official acts without prior sanction. - This protection is available for acts committed "in the course of bonafide discharge of his/her duty".

  7. The method of recruitment, age limits and other qualifications relating to each post in the Central Industrial Security Force are specified in which one of the following documents ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2017

    1. The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968
    2. The Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001
    3. Recruitment Rules, as amended from time to time
    4. Agreement to be signed by every enrolled member at the time of initial appointment
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Recruitment Rules, as amended from time to time

    - Acts provide the main legal basis. - Rules (like CISF Rules) provide general service conditions, discipline, and broad recruitment principles. - Recruitment Rules are the detailed documents specifying eligibility criteria, selection procedures, and methodologies for specific posts. - An agreement at the time of appointment outlines individual terms, not general recruitment rules.

  8. Which one of the following is not correct with respect to the conditions of eligibility for appointment to the CISF ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2022

    1. The person shall be a citizen of India
    2. The person shall have training in civil defence
    3. The person shall bear a good moral character
    4. The person shall belong to such categories of persons as may, from time to time be declared by the Central Government as being eligible for appointment to the CISF
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The person shall have training in civil defence

    - Standard eligibility conditions for appointment to a disciplined force like the CISF include citizenship, age limits, educational qualifications, physical and medical fitness, and good character. - Option A (Citizen of India) is a fundamental requirement for appointment to Central Government services, especially security forces. - Option C (Good moral character) is essential for members of any disciplined force. - Option D (Belonging to such categories of persons as may... be declared by the Central Government) refers to the government's authority to set recruitment criteria, including educational qualifications, age limits, reservation policies, etc., which is a valid aspect of eligibility. - Option B (The person shall have training in civil defence) is not a standard eligibility condition for appointment. Training in civil defence or other relevant skills is usually imparted during the recruitment process or as part of the training curriculum after a candidate is selected for appointment. It is not a pre-requisite for applying or being considered eligible.

  9. All members enrolled with the force under CISF Act, 1968, are subject to certain restrictions. Which one of the following does not apply to them ?

    Asked in: UPSC CISF AC EXE 2023

    1. Associate with any trade union or labour union
    2. Be a member of any political association
    3. Be a member of any society that is not recognized as part of the force
    4. Publish a book of scientific character
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Publish a book of scientific character

    - CISF Act restricts association with trade unions, political bodies, and publishing without permission. - CISF Rules provide exceptions for publishing purely scientific/literary/artistic works from the need for prior permission mentioned in the Act.

  10. The qualification of the member of the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal is that the person

    Asked in: EI GS T&TR Transport Deptt 2702 2025

    1. is, or has been, a District Judge
    2. is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge
    3. is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge
    4. is a practicing lawyer
    Show answer

    Answer: B. is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court or a District Judge

    The Motor Accident Claims Tribunal generally requires members to have a judicial background, often including experience as a High Court Judge or a District Judge.

  11. A person shall be qualified to be an agent if

    Asked in: Paper I 5

    1. Found to be of unsound mind by a court of competent jurisdiction
    2. Has been found guilty of criminal misappro‐ priation criminal breach of trust or cheating or forgery
    3. As to any such offence, after laps of five years, authority declared in respect of such person, conviction shall cease to operate
    4. The person is a minor
    Show answer

    Answer: C. As to any such offence, after laps of five years, authority declared in respect of such person, conviction shall cease to operate

    Eligibility criteria for professional roles, especially in regulated sectors like insurance, often include requirements related to mental capacity, criminal record, and age to ensure integrity and competence. However, some disqualifications may have provisions for removal or expiration.